All categories

2 years ago

I have a question

Physics

2 answers:

Anarel [89]2 years ago

5 0

nobody ships them im sorry

schepotkina [342]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

siiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiissseerrr l,mao hi

Explanation:

You might be interested in

You pull a solid nickel ball with a density of 8.91 g/cm3 and a radius of 1.40 cm upward through a fluid at a constant speed of

Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

$P = 1.090\,N$

Explanation:

The constant speed means that ball is not experimenting acceleration. This elements is modelled by using the following equation of equilibrium:

$\Sigma F = P - W + F_{D}$

$\Sigma F = P - \rho \cdot V \cdot g + c\cdot v = 0$

Now, the exerted force is:

$P = \rho \cdot V \cdot g - c\cdot v$

The volume of a sphere is:

$V = \frac{4\cdot \pi}{3}\cdot R^{3}$

$V = \frac{4\cdot \pi}{3}\cdot (0.014\,m)^{3}$

$V = 1.149\times 10^{-5}\,m^{3}$

Lastly, the force is calculated:

$P = (8910\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} )\cdot (1.149\cdot 10^{-5}\,m^{3})\cdot (9.81\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} )+(0.950\,\frac{kg}{s})\cdot (0.09\,\frac{m}{s} )$

$P = 1.090\,N$

5 0

2 years ago

Nresistors, each having resistance equal to 1 2, are arranged in a circuit first in series and then in parallel. What is the rat

aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

option (b)

Explanation:

Let the resistance of each resistor is R.

In series combination,

The effective resistance is Rs.

rs = r + R + R + .... + n times = NR

Let V be the source of potential difference.

Power in series

Ps = v^2 / Rs = V^2 / NR ..... (1)

In parallel combination

the effective resistance is Rp

1 / Rp = 1 / R + 1 / R + .... + N times

1 / Rp = N / R

Rp = R / N

Power is parallel

Rp = v^2 / Rp = N V^2 / R ..... (2)

Divide equation (1) by equation (2) we get

Ps / Pp = 1 / N^2

5 0

2 years ago

Darren filled ocean water, fresh water, bottled water, and tap water into four different containers. He then dropped identical g

elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

I would say container 1

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

400 N of load can be overcome by an effort of 50 N by using a lever. Calculate the mechanical advantage of the lever.

mars1129 [50]

Answer:

load (l)=400N

Effort(E)=50N

mechanical advantage (MA)= load ÷Effort

(ma)=400÷50

(ma)=8

Explanation:

I copy pasted from the answer from the same question. Remember to first check if ur question is there

4 0

2 years ago

if the amplitude of sine curve is 4 and the frequency is 1 with no phase shift, what is the function that descirbes this curve?

Vlada [557]

Answer:

y = 4 Sin (2πt)

Explanation:

Amplitude, A = 4

frequency, f = 1

Wave function is given by

y = A sinωt

where, ω is angular frequency

ω = 2 π f = 2 π x 1 = 2π

So, the desired wave function

y = 4 Sin (2πt)

8 0

3 years ago