Technician A says that weld-on dent removal attachments may be used on a steel panel.

Consider a single crystal of nickel oriented such that a tensile stress is applied along a [001] direction. If slip occurs on a

Elena L [17]

Answer:

$\mathbf{\tau_c =5.675 \ MPa}$

Explanation:

Given that:

The direction of the applied tensile stress =[001]

direction of the slip plane = [ $\bar 1$ 01]

normal to the slip plane = [111]

Now, the first thing to do is to calculate the angle between the tensile stress and the slip by using the formula:

$cos \lambda = \Big [\dfrac{d_1d_2+e_1e_2+f_1f_2}{\sqrt{(d_1^2+e_1^2+f_1^2)+(d_2^2+e_2^2+f_2^2) }} \Big]$

where;

$[d_1\ e_1 \ f_1]$ = directional indices for tensile stress

$[d_2 \ e_2 \ f_2]$ = slip direction

replacing their values;

i.e $d_1$ = 0 , $e_1$ = 0 $f_1$ = 1 & $d_2$ = -1 , $e_2$ = 0 , $f_2$ = 1

$cos \lambda = \Big [\dfrac{(0\times -1)+(0\times 0) + (1\times 1) }{\sqrt{(0^2+0^2+1^2)+((-1)^2+0^2+1^2) }} \Big]$

$cos \ \lambda = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$

Also, to find the angle $\phi$ between the stress [001] & normal slip plane [111]

Then;

$cos \ \phi = \Big [\dfrac{d_1d_3+e_1e_3+f_1f_3}{\sqrt{(d_1^2+e_1^2+f_1^2)+(d_3^2+e_3^2+f_3^2) }} \Big]$

replacing their values;

i.e $d_1$ = 0 , $e_1$ = 0 $f_1$ = 1 & $d_3$ = 1 , $e_3$ = 1 , $f_3$ = 1

$cos \ \phi= \Big [ \dfrac{ (0 \times 1)+(0 \times 1)+(1 \times 1)} {\sqrt {(0^2+0^2+1^2)+(1^2+1^2 +1^2)} } \Big]$

$cos \phi= \dfrac{1} {\sqrt{3} }$

However, the critical resolved SS(shear stress) $\mathbf{\tau_c}$ can be computed using the formula:

$\tau_c = (\sigma )(cos \phi )(cos \lambda)$

where;

applied tensile stress $\sigma =$ 13.9 MPa

∴

$\tau_c =13.9\times ( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} )( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}})$

$\mathbf{\tau_c =5.675 \ MPa}$

3 0

2 years ago

It is an important part of the differential maintenance which purpose is to make smoother the differential operation by lubricat

masha68 [24]

Answer:

lubrication

Explanation:

MARK ME BRAINLEIST

4 0

2 years ago

This problem demonstrates aliasing. Generate a 512-point waveform consisting of 2 sinusoids at 200 and 400-Hz. Assume a sampling

aalyn [17]

Answer and Explanation:

clear all; close all;

N=512;

t=(1:N)/N;

fs=1000;

f=(1:N)*fs/N;

x= sin(2*pi*200*t) + sin(2*pi*400*t);

y= sin(2*pi*200*t) + sin(2*pi*900*t);

for n = 1:20

a(n) = (2/N)*sum(x.*(cos(2*pi*n*t)))

b(n) = (2/N)*sum(x.*(sin(2*pi*n*t)))

c(n) = sqrt(a(n).^2+b(n).^2)

theta(n) =-(360/(2*pi))*atan(b(n)./a(n));

end

plot(f(1:20),c(1:20),'rd');

disp([a(1:4),b(1:4),c(1:4),theta(1:4)])

8 0

3 years ago

The steel 4140 steel contains 0.4% C, however, it shows higher yield strength and ultimate strength than that of the 1045 (0.45%

Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

4140 steel contains 0.4% C having higher yield strength and ultimate strength than the 1045 steel contains 0.45% C

Explanation:

we have given 4140 steel contains 0.4% C

we know here that 4140 steel is low steel alloy , and it have low amount of chromium , manganese etc alloying element

and these elements which are present in 4140 steel they increase yield strength and ultimate strength of steel

while in 1045 steel contains 0.45 % c is plain carbon steel

and it do not contain any alloying element

so that 4140 steel contains 0.4% C having higher yield strength and ultimate strength than the 1045 steel contains 0.45% C

4 0

3 years ago

Seperate real and imaginary parts tan(2x+i3y)

ahrayia [7]

Answer:

First you have to separate real and imaginary parts of Tan(x+iy)=Tan(z)=sin(z)/cos(z)

sinz=sin(x+iy)=sinxcos(iy)+cosxsin(iy)=sinxcoshy-icosx sinhy

cosz=cos(x+iy)=cosxcos(iy)-sinxsin(iy)=cosxcoshy−isinxsinhy

Now if you plug in Tan(z) and simplify (it is easy!) you get

Tan(z)=(sin(2x)+isinh(2y))/(cos(2x)+cosh(2y))= A+iB.

This means that

A=sin(2x)/(cos(2x)+cosh(2y)) and B= sinh(2y)/(cos(2x)+cosh(2y))

Now,

A/B=sin(2x)/sinh(2y)

If any questions, let me know.

3 0

3 years ago