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fenix001 [56]
3 years ago
10

A ship sails east from a harbor for 16 nautical miles. it then sails in the direction of n 55 e for 18 nautical miles. how far i

s it then from the harbor
Physics
2 answers:
Katena32 [7]3 years ago
8 0
<span> Use the Law of Cosines, where you have a triangle with included angle of 145 degrees and sides of 16 and 18. You are then solving the equation: </span>

<span>d^2 = 16^2 + 18^2 - 2(16)(18)cos(145)        </span>
evablogger [386]3 years ago
8 0
34 lol...............
You might be interested in
NEED HELP ASAP
postnew [5]

Explanation:

TEMPLE HINDUS MOSQUE MUSLIMS TEMPLE HINDUS MOSQUE MUSLIMS

5 0
3 years ago
Consider three scenarios in which a particular box moves downward under the pull of gravity :
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

1. True  WA > WB > WC

Explanation:

In this exercise they give work for several different configurations and ask that we show the relationship between them, the best way to do this is to calculate each work separately.

A) Work is the product of force by distance and the cosine of the angle between them

    WA = W h cos 0

   WA = mg h

B) On a ramp without rubbing

     Sin30 = h / L

     L = h / sin 30

     WB = F d cos θ  

     WB = F L cos 30

     WB = mf (h / sin30) cos 30

     WB = mg h ctan 30

C) Ramp with rubbing

    W sin 30 - fr = ma

   N- Wcos30 = 0

   W sin 30 - μ W cos 30 = ma

    F = W (sin30 - μ cos30)

   WC = mg (sin30 - μ cos30) h / sin30

   Wc = mg (1 - μ ctan30) h

When we review the affirmation it is the work where there is rubbing is the smallest and the work where it comes in free fall at the maximum

Let's review the claims

1. True The work of gravity is the greatest and the work where there is friction is the least

2 False. The job where there is friction is the least

3 False work with rubbing is the least

4 False work with rubbing is the least

5 0
3 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

Download docx
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> docx </span>
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> pdf </span>
5 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HURRY!!!
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

X represents the transmitting power  Modulates (amplitude or frequency am/fm), amplifies the signal, transmitting it out at whatever direction the antenna is set up for.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A world-class sprinter can burst out of the blocks to essentially top speed (of about 11.5 m/s) in the first 15.0 m of the race.
wolverine [178]
Given:
u = 0, initial speed (sprinter starts from rest)
v = 11.5 m/s, final speed
s = 15 m, distance traveled to attain final speed.

Let
a =  average acceleration,
t = time taken to attain final speed.

Then
v² = u² + 2as
or
(11.5 m/s)² = 2*(a m/s²)*(15 m)
a = 11.5²/(2*15) = 4.408 m/s²

Also
v = u +a t
or
(11.5 m/s) = (4.408 m/s²)*(t s)
t = 11.5/4.408 = 2.609 s

Answer:
The average acceleration is 4.41 m/s² (nearest hundredth).
The time required is 2.61 s (nearest hundredth).
8 0
3 years ago
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