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grin007 [14]
2 years ago
11

Depth of a pond seems shallower than real depth,why?​

Physics
2 answers:
IgorLugansk [536]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The refraction of light at the surface of water makes ponds and swimming pools appear shallower than they really are. A 1m deep pond would only appear to be 0.75 m deep when viewed from directly above. When light emerges from glass or water into air it speeds up again.

Explanation:

Viefleur [7K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The property of light is the refraction of light because when light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium it bends away from the normal. The apparent depth of water is always less than the real depth of the water. Hence, water appears to be shallower than the real depth.

You might be interested in
What is the Force in Newtons exerted by cart with a mass of 0.75 kg and an Acceleration of 6m/s2?
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

<h2>4.5 N</h2>

Explanation:

The force acting on an object given it's mass and acceleration can be found by using the formula

force = mass × acceleration

From the question we have

force = 0.75 × 6 = 4.5

We have the final answer as

<h3>4.5 N</h3>

Hope this helps you

6 0
2 years ago
Why is it important to know the direction of the force applied to a moving object and the direction in which the object is movin
erastova [34]

Answer

(C).

When there is an angle between the two directions, the cosine of the angle must be considered.


Step by step Solution

The work done by a force is defined as the product of the force and the distance traveled in the direction of motion.

The first answer "Only the component of the force perpendicular to the motion is used to calculate the work" is wrong because, the force perpendicular to motion does no work.

The second choice "If the force acts in the same direction as the motion, then no work is done" is wrong because the work in the direction of the force is W=F\times d.

Fourth answer "A force at a right angle to the motion requires the use of the sine of the angle" is wrong because the sin(90)=0 meaning that there is no work done in the direction perpendicular to the motion.

The third answer" When there is an angle between the two directions, the cosine of the angle must be considered." is correct because the work is calculated using the force in the direction of the motion. The magnitude of this force is F\times d\times \cos(\theta).




4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the resistance of a light bulb if a potential difference of 120 V will produce a current of 0.5 A in the bulb?
Yakvenalex [24]

Explanation:

Ohm's law:

V = IR

120 V = (0.5 A) R

R = 240 Ω

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do you convert seconds to minutes, seconds to hours , minutes to seconds and hours to seconds
Bess [88]

Answer:

You could memorize conversions, or use conversion charts, or do a quick internet search for help.

Explanation:

I'll do a few of the conversions for you

<u>Seconds to minutes: </u>

there are 60 seconds in one minute. So if you are wondering how many seconds are in 3 and 1/2 minutes, you would do this conversion:

60 sec/min <em>times </em>x sec/3.5 min

which can be written as 60 x 3.5 = 210. so "x" seconds would be 210 seconds in 3 1/2 minutes.

<u>you could do the same thing in the opposite direction for minutes to seconds:</u>

1 min has 60 seconds. So in 7.25 minutes, how many seconds are there?

1 min/60 sec <em>times </em>7.25 min/x sec

which can be written as 7.25 x 60 = 435. so "x" seconds would be 435 seconds in 7.25 minutes.

<u>hours to seconds:</u>

this one is slightly more complicated

In one hour there are 60 minutes, and in one minute there are 60 seconds.

so to convert from hours to seconds you would do this conversion:

1 hr/60 min times 1 min/60 sec. then the "min" would cancel out, and you would be left with the label "hr/sec". to do the math, it would be 1 hr / 60 x 60.

60x60 = 3600. so you would have 1 hr/3600 sec. So in one hour there are 3600 seconds.

so if you want to know how many seconds are in 6.75 hours:

6.75 hr/x sec <em>times </em>3600 sec/1 hr

6.75 x 3600 = 24,300 so there are 24,300 seconds in 6.75 hours.

I hope this helps :)

4 0
3 years ago
2. Use the diagram below to answer this question. As the ball moves from point A
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

at point A the ball possess pontetial energy , point B kinetic energy then point C pontetial energy

5 0
3 years ago
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