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Iteru [2.4K]
3 years ago
9

An electron that has an instantaneous velocity of ???? = 2.0 × 106 m ???? ???? + 3.0 × 106 m ???? ???? is moving through the uni

form magnetic field ???? = 0.030T ???? − 0.15T ???? . (a) Find the force on the electron due to the magnetic field (b) Repeat your calculation for a proton having the same velocity.
Physics
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

It is given that,

Velocity of the electron, v=(2\times 10^6i+3\times 10^6j)\ m/s

Magnetic field, B=(0.030i-0.15j)\ T

Charge of electron, q_e=-1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C

(a) Let F_e is the force on the electron due to the magnetic field. The magnetic force acting on it is given by :

F_e=q_e(v\times B)

F_e=1.6\times 10^{-19}\times [(2\times 10^6i+3\times 10^6j)\times (0.030i-0.15j)]

F_e=-1.6\times 10^{-19}\times (-390000)(k)

F_e=6.24\times 10^{-14}k\ N

(b) The charge of electron, q_p=1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C

The force acting on the proton is same as force on electron but in opposite direction i.e (-k). Hence, this is the required solution.

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Two atoms of the same element can have different numbers of protons

false

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diff protons ... diff elements


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A proton (mass=1.67x10^-27 kg, charge= 1.60x10^-19 C) moves from point A to point under the influence of an electrostatic force
Tom [10]

Answer:

VB -  VA  =  - 33.4

Explanation:

Generally the workdone in moving the proton is mathematically represented as

     W  =  KE_f  - KE_i

Where KE_i \ and \  KE_f \  are\  the\  initial  \  and  \  final \  kinetic \  energy

So

    KE_i  =  \frac{1}{2} m v_a^2

Here v_a is the velocity at A with value  50 m/s

So

    KE_i  =  \frac{1}{2} (1.67*10^{-27}) * 50^2

    KE_i  = 2.09 *10^{-24} \  J

Also  

     KE_f  =  \frac{1}{2} m v_b^2

Here v_a is the velocity at A with value 80 km/s = 80000 m/s

=>   KE_f  =  \frac{1}{2} (1.67*10^{-27}) * 80000^2

=>   KE_f  = 5.34 *10^{-18} \  J

 So

    W  =   5.34 *10^{-18}  - 2.09 *10^{-24}

     W  =   5.34 *10^{-18}  m/s

Now this workdone is also mathematically represented as

     W =  q *  V

So  

    q *  V =   5.34 *10^{-18}

Here  q =  1.60*10^{-19} C

So

        V =   \frac{5.34 *10^{-18} }{1.60*10^{-19}}

         V =   33.4 \  V

Generally proton movement is in the direction of the electric field it means that  VA>VB

So

    VB -  VA  =  - 33.4

8 0
3 years ago
Add these measurements, using significant digit rules:<br><br> 1.0090 cm + 0.02 cm = cm
marin [14]

Answer:

1.029

Explanation:

1.0090 can also be looked at as "1.009"

0.02 can also be looked at as "0.020"

I think of it as 20+9 which is 29. There for your answer should be 1.029. There are no measurement rules applying to this equation since they are both in centimeters. So you don't have to convert anything.

7 0
3 years ago
A particle with charge 6 mC moving in a region where only electric forces act on it has a kinetic energy of 1.9000000000000001 J
Vesna [10]

Answer:

16.9000000000000001 J

Explanation:

From the given information:

Let the initial kinetic energy from point A be K_A = 1.9000000000000001 J

and the final kinetic energy from point B be K_B = ???

The charge particle Q = 6 mC = 6 × 10⁻³ C

The change in the electric potential from point B to A;

i.e. V_B - V_A = -2.5 × 10³ V

According to the work-energy theorem:

-Q × ΔV = ΔK

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-(6\times 10^{-3}\ C) \times ( -2.5 \times 10^3) = (K_B - 1.9000000000000001 \ J)

15 = (K_B - 1.9000000000000001 \ J)

K_B = 15+ 1.9000000000000001 \ J

\mathbf{K_B =1 6.9000000000000001 \ J}

3 0
3 years ago
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