The wavelength of the sound wave is equal to 0.333 m. Therefore, option (c) is correct.
<h3>What are frequency and wavelength?</h3>
The frequency of the wave can be defined as the number of oscillations that occur in one second and can be expressed in hertz. The wavelength can be defined as the distance between the two adjacent points of a wave such as two crests or troughs.
The relationship between frequency (ν), speed of sound waves (V), and wavelength (λ):
V = νλ
Given, the frequency of the sound wave, ν = 10 Hz
The speed of the sound wave,
The wavelength of the sound waves can determine as follows
λ = V/ν = 340/1020 = 0.333 m.
Therefore, the wavelength of the sound wave is 0.333 m
Learn more about wavelength and frequency, here:
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Answer:
a) 20s
b) 500m
Explanation:
Given the initial velocity = 100 m/s, acceleration = -10m/s^2 (since it is moving up, acceleration is negative), and at the maximum height, the ball is not moving so final velocity = 0 m/s.
To find time, we apply the UARM formula:
v final = (a x t) + v initial
Replacing the values gives us:
0 = (-10 x t) + 100
-100 = -10t
t = 10s
It takes 10s for the the ball to reach its max height, but it must also go down so it takes 2 trips, once going up and then another one going down, both of which take the same time to occur
So 10s going up and another 10s going down:
10x2 = 20s
b) Now that we have v final = 0, v initial = 100, a = -10, t = 10s (10s because maximum displacement means the displacement from the ground to the max height) we can easily find the displacement by applying the second formula of UARM:
Δy = (1/2)(a)(t^2) + (v initial)(t)
Replacing the values gives us:
Δy = (1/2)(-10)(10^2) + (100)(10)
= (-5)(100) + 1000
= -500 + 1000
= 500 m
Hope this helps, brainliest would be appreciated :)
Hello!
Use the formula:
M = k * p
Data:
M = Mechanic energy
k = Kinetic energy
p = Potencial energy
Descomposing:
M = (0,5*mv²) + (mgh)
Replacing:
M = (0,5 * 59,6 kg * (23,4 m/s)²) + (59,6 kg * 9,81 m/s² * 44,6 m)
M = 16317,28 J + 26076,54 J
M = 42393,82 J
The mechanic energy is <u>42393,82 Joules.</u>
Friction occurs between two contacting surfaces. The coefficient of friction is very much dependent on the roughness of these surfaces. Some of the many ways in which the coefficient can be lessened or decreased are to lubricate the surface or make it shiny by eliminating the spikes which caused the roughness.
<h3><u>Given </u><u>:</u><u>-</u><u> </u></h3>
- A certain circuit is composed of two series resistors
- The total resistance is 10 ohms
- One of the resistor is 4 ohms
<h3>
<u>To </u><u>Find </u><u>:</u><u>-</u></h3>
- We have to find the value of other resistor?
<h3><u>Let's </u><u>Begin </u><u>:</u><u>-</u></h3>
We know that,
In series combination,
- When a number of resistances are connected in series, the equivalent I.e resultant resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances and is greater than any individual resistance
<u>That </u><u>is</u><u>, </u>
Rn in series = R1 + R2 + R3.....So on
<u>Therefore</u><u>, </u>
<u>According </u><u>to </u><u>the </u><u>question</u><u>, </u>
We have,
R1 + R2 = 10 Ω
4 + R2 = 10Ω
R2 = 10 - 4
R2 = 6Ω
Hence, The value of R2 resistor in series is 6Ω
