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stira [4]
3 years ago
14

How does the work required to accelerate a particle from 10 m/s to 20 m/s compare to that required to accelerate it from 20 m/s

to 30 m/s? ) It is less. (B) It is the same. (C) It is greater. (D) It cannot be determined without knowing the magnitude of the force exerted on the particle. (E) It cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the particle.
Physics
1 answer:
poizon [28]3 years ago
5 0

To solve this problem we will apply the energy conservation theorem for which the work applied on a body must be equivalent to the kinetic energy of this (or vice versa) therefore

W = \Delta KE

\Delta W = \frac{1}{2} (m)(v_f)^2 -\frac{1}{2} (m)(v_i)^2

Here,

m = mass

v_{f,i} = Velocity (Final and initial)

First case) When the particle goes from 10m/s to 20m/s

\Delta W = \frac{1}{2} (m)(v_f)^2 -\frac{1}{2} (m)(v_i)^2

\Delta W = \frac{1}{2} (m)(20)^2 -\frac{1}{2} (m)(10)^2

W_1 = 150(m) J

Second case) When the particle goes from 20m/s to 30m/s

\Delta W = \frac{1}{2} (m)(v_f)^2 -\frac{1}{2} (m)(v_i)^2

\Delta W = \frac{1}{2} (m)(30)^2 -\frac{1}{2} (m)(20)^2

W_1 = 250(m) J

As the mass of the particle is the same, we conclude that more energy is required in the second case than in the first, therefore the correct answer is A.

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Answer:

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The bold are vectors. It indicates that the area of the body is A = 0.046 m², the magnetic field B = 1.4 T, also iindicate that the normal to the area is parallel to the field, therefore the angle θ = 0 and cos 0 =1.

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the final field before a fault is zero

       

let's calculate

            Δt = - 0.046 (0- 1.4) / 0.011

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