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Snezhnost [94]
3 years ago
13

How long is 10 percentage of 60 minutes?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Arisa [49]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

\red{\frac{1 \cancel0}{1 \cancel0 \cancel0}  \times 6 \cancel0 \: minutes}

\red{\frac{1}{1}  \times 6 \: minutes}

\red{ \frac{1 \times 6}{1}  \: minutes}

\red{ \frac{6}{1}  \: minutes}

\red{6 \: minutes}

pogonyaev3 years ago
4 0
6 minutes, 60 x .10 will give u ur answer
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Can someone help me i will give point math please
castortr0y [4]
He worked as a carpenter for 12 hrs. and as a blacksmith for 18.
4 0
3 years ago
What rule would you allow to test weather (x,y) is on line l
n200080 [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If a point (x, y) lies on a straight line, coordinates of the point will satisfy the equation.

Slope of a line passing through two points C(4, 5) and D(8, 10),

m = \frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

m = \frac{10-5}{8-4}

m = \frac{5}{4}

Equation of the line passing through C(4, 5) and slope m = \frac{5}{4}

y - y' = m(x - x')

y - 5 = \frac{5}{4}(x-4)

y = \frac{5}{4}x-5+5

y = \frac{5}{4}x

If point B(4, 0) lies on the line CD,

0 = \frac{5}{4}(4)

0 = 5

Which is not true.

Therefore, point B doesn't lie on line CD.

8 0
3 years ago
john and ted have a reputation of being late to events. If john is late 20% of the time and ted is late 40% of the time what is
oee [108]

Answer:

The probability that they will both be on time is 12/25.

Step-by-step explanation:

John is late 20% of the time.

So, he is prompt 80% of the time.

Ted is late 40% of the time.

So, he is prompt 60% of the time.

Since, both the events are independent,

p(John be on time ∩ Ted be on time) = p(John be on time) × p(Ted be on time)

= \frac{80}{100} × \frac{60}{100}

= 0.80 × 0.60

= 0.48 or 48%

=\frac{12}{25}

Hence, the probability that they will both be on time is 12/25.

3 0
3 years ago
joe has a piggy bank with $8.90 split upon nickels, dimes, and quarters. The piggy bank contains 76 coins in all. The number of
kozerog [31]

Answer:

There are 38 dimes, 22 nickels and 16 quarters.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let n, d and q represent the # of nickels, dimes and quarters respectively.

Then n + d + q = 76

The value of a nickel is $0.05; that of a dime is $0.10, and that of a quarter is $0.25.

Thus, the value of n nickels is $0.05n (and so on).

The total value of the coins is $0.05n + $0.10d + $0.25q = $8.90.

d = n + q allows us to eliminate d.

First, n + d + q = 76 becomes n + (n + q) + q = 76, and second:

$0.05n + $0.10(n + q) + $0.25q = $8.90.  Here we have succeeded in eliminating d from two different equations, and now we have these two different equations in two unknowns (n and q), which is solvable.

Simplifying both equations, we get:

2n + 2q = 76 and

5n + 10n + 10q + 25q = 890, or 15n + 35q = 890

Let's use the substitution method of solving linear equations:

Rewrite 2n  + 2q = 76 as n + q = 38, or n = 38 - q.  Substituting this result into the second equation, we get:

15(38 - q) + 35 q = 890, or

  570 - 15q + 35q = 890, or

   570 + 20 q = 890.  Then 20q = 890 - 570 = 320, and q = 320/20 = 16.

There are 16 quarters.  Thus, the number of nickels is n = 38 - 16 = 22.

Finally, since n + d + q = 76, 22 + d + 16 = 76, or:

22 + d = 60, or d = 60 - 22 = 38.

There are 38 dimes, 22 nickels and 16 quarters.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the simplified answer of “One less than X is less than -1 OR 3 more than X is greater than or equal to 7.” This is solvi
blsea [12.9K]
x - 1 \ \textless \  -1 OR x + 3  \geq 7
5 0
3 years ago
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