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4vir4ik [10]
2 years ago
11

HELP ASAP!!! ILL GIVE BRAINLY TO THE ONE THAT ACTUALLY HELPS ME!!!! PLEASE ASAP HELP NO JOKING! PLUS THERE IS 50 POINTS TO THE B

RAINLIST
Question 4 (Essay Worth 10 points)
(06.05 MC)
Gina spins a penny 100 times and it lands head side up 38 times. Explain why Gina's experimental probability may be different from the theoretical probability of
spinning a coin

Mathematics
2 answers:
RUDIKE [14]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The theoretical probability of spinning a head = 1/2 = 0.5

Therefore, if Gina spins a penny 100 times, the theoretical number of times it will land head side up = 0.5 x 100 = 50 times

Gina's experimental probability is 38/100 = 0.38

Therefore, the experimental probability is less than the theoretical probability.

The main difference between experimental and theoretical probability is that experimental probability is based on the actual results of an experiment (gathered by experimenting repeatedly), whereas theoretical probability is based on possible outcomes based on assumptions.

If Gina continued to spin the penny, as the number of times she spun it increased, you would expect for the experimental probability to get nearer to the theoretical probability of 0.5.

ella [17]2 years ago
7 0

The random nature of the process is why Gina doesn't get the theoretical probability. If she were to repeat this experiment say 1000 or perhaps 10,000 times, then her experimental probability value should get closer to 1/2. It likely won't land *exactly* on 1/2 because again of the random nature of the outcomes.

For more information, check out the Law of Large Numbers.

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Help, No links please!!!!!!
jolli1 [7]

Answer:

I think 60 because say u do 2×3 you get 6 but do 20×3 and it's 60 so I think it's 60 so sorry if I'm wrong.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the volume of the triangular prism below 7.8 in 6 in 5 in 11.5 in
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

D. 172.5 inches cubed

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a good day :)

8 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression 3.5 + (1 + 4) x (6.5 + 1.5)
Rashid [163]

\huge\text{Hey there!}

\mathsf{3.5 + (1 + 4)\times (6.5 + 1.5)}\\\mathsf{1 + 4 = \bf 5}\\\mathsf{6.5+1.5=\bf 8}\\\mathsf{3.5+5\times8}\\\mathsf{5\times8=\bf 40}\\\mathsf{3.5+40}\\\large\text{= \bf 43.5}

\boxed{\boxed{\large\textsf{Answer: \huge \bf 43.5}}}\huge\checkmark

\large\textsf{Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!}

~\frak{Amphitrite1040:)}

4 0
3 years ago
How would I solve this?
Elena-2011 [213]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  not tangent

Step-by-step explanation:

The triangle has side lengths 5, 12, 14. You can compute the "form factor" for the triangle:

  a^2 +b^2 -c^2 . . . . . . . . where 'c' is the longest side

  = 5^2 +12^2 -14^2

  = 25 +144 -196 = -27

The negative value tells you this triangle is obtuse. If AB were a tangent, it would be perpendicular to the radius—the triangle would be a right triangle.

If you compare this calculation to the Pythagorean theorem, you see that the length AB is longer than the length √(25+144) = 13 that is necessary for the triangle to be a right triangle. That means the angle at A is greater than 90°.

__

<em>Additional comment</em>

This "form factor" calculation is part of the calculation you would do using the Law of Cosines to determine the largest angle. The sign of the "form factor" tells you the sign of the cosine of the angle. Angles whose cosine is negative are greater than 90°. A positive "form factor" indicates an acute triangle.

I find computing the "form factor" in this way makes interpretation of the result fairly easy. For me, it eliminates the confusion I had when the numbers of the Pythagorean theorem didn't add up. For me, it was too much work to figure whether the triangle was acute or obtuse, and I often got it wrong.

For those interested, the angle measure is arccos((a^2+b^2-c^2)/(2ab)). Here, that's arccos(-27/(2·5·12)) ≈ 103.003°.

6 0
3 years ago
Solve the following <br> Sin 42 = cos ____
Hoochie [10]
I think the answer is 0.399
the "9" is repeated.
5 0
4 years ago
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