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Vikentia [17]
2 years ago
10

3. Briefly explain the conduction mechanism in metals?​

Engineering
1 answer:
Bingel [31]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

conduction occurs when a substance is heated

Explanation:

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Taking as a basis of calculation 100 mol of gas leaving the conversion reactor, draw andcompletely label a flowchart of this process. Then calculate the moles of fresh methanol feed,formaldehyde product solution, recycled methanol, and absorber off-gas, the kg of steamgenerated in the waste-heat boiler, and the kg of cooling water fed to the heat exchangerbetween the waste-heat boiler and the absorber. Finally, calculate the heat (kJ) that must beremoved in the distillation column overhead condenser, assuming that methanol enters as asaturated vapor at 1 atm and leaves as a saturated liquid at the same pressure.

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Explanation:

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3 years ago
Why can't I fly. I dont know why?
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In order to fly, you must have a device/mechanism that will release hot air, causing it to fly. A jet pack will do the job.
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3 years ago
Oil with a density of 850 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity of 0.00062 m2 /s is being discharged by a 5 mm diameter, 40 m long horiz
ra1l [238]

Answer:

Flow rate is 1.82\times 10^{-8} m^{3}/s

Explanation:

Given information

Density of oil, \rho_{oil}= 850 Kg/m^{3}

kinematic viscosity, v= 0.00062 m^{2} /s

Diameter of pipe, D= 5 mm= 0.005 m

Length of pipe, L=40 m

Height of liquid, h= 3 m

Volume flow rate for horizontal pipe will be given by

\bar v=\frac {\triangle P\pi D^{4}}{128\mu L} where \mu is dynamic viscosity and \triangle P is pressure drop

At the bottom of the tank, pressure is given by

P_{bottom}=\rho_{oil} gh=850 Kg/m^{3}\times 9.81 m/s^{2}\times 3 m= 25015.5 N/m^{2}

Since at the top pressure is zero, therefore change in pressure a difference between the pressure at the bottom and the top. It implies that change in pressure is still 25015.5 N/m^{2}

Dynamic viscosity, \mu=\rho_{oil}v= 850 Kg/m^{3}\times 0.00062 m^{2}/s=0.527 Kg/m.s

Now the volume flow rate will be

\bar v=\frac {25015.5 N/m^{2}\times \pi \times 0.005^{4}}{128\times 0.527 Kg/m.s \times 40}=1.82037\times 10^{-8} m^{3}/s\approx 1.82\times 10^{-8} m^{3}/s

Proof of flow being laminar

The velocity of flow is given by

V_{flow}=\frac {\bar v}{A}=\frac {1.82\times 10^{-8} m^{3}/s}{0.25\times \pi\times 0.005^{2}}=0.000927104  m/s

Reynolds number, Re=\frac {\rho_{oil} v_{flow} D}{\mu}=\frac {850 Kg/m^{3}\times 0.000927104 m/s\times 0.005}{0.527 kg/m.s}=0.007476648

Since the Reynolds number is less than 2300, the flow is laminar and the assumption is correct.

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