1. Vpa = 180m/s. @ 0 deg.
Vag = 40m/s @ 120 deg,CCW.
<span>
Vpg = Vpa + Vag,
Vpg = (180 + 40cos120) + i40sin120,
Vpg = 160 + i34.64,
Vpg=sqrt((160)^2 + (34.64)^2)=163.7m/s.
</span>
<span>2. tanA = Y / X = 34.64 / 160 = 0.2165,
A = 12.2 deg,CCW. = 12.2deg. North of
East. </span>
3. 1 hr = 3600s. <span>d = Vt = 163.7m/s * 3600s = 589,320m.
hope this helps</span>
It is possible because the rubber ball has mechanical energy which is equal to potential energy.
<h3>
What is mechanical energy?</h3>
Mechanical energy of an object is the total energy possessed by the object, including the potential energy and the kinetic energy.
M.A = K.E + P.E
<h3>What is kinetic energy?</h3>
Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
<h3>What is potential energy?</h3>
Potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position.
When kinetic energy (K.E) = 0
M.A = P.E
Thus, it is possible because the rubber ball has mechanical energy which is equal to potential energy.
Learn more about mechanical energy here: brainly.com/question/24443465
The impact speed will be
v^2 = 2*9.8*1.3
v^2 = 25.48
v= 5.04 m/s
Answer:
a)0.22 m/s².
Explanation:
Given that
Net force ,F= 6.8 N
mass ,m = 31 kg
From the second law of Newton's
F = m a ---------------1
Where
F=Net force ,m=mass
a=Acceleration
Now by putting the values in the equation 1
F = m a
6.8 = 31 x a
Therefore the acceleration of the scooter will be 0.22 m/s².
The answer will be "a".
a)0.22 m/s².
