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Ilya [14]
2 years ago
12

0.318 cm. What is the ideal mechanical advantage?

Physics
1 answer:
vodomira [7]2 years ago
5 0

The ideal mechanical advantage will be 8.017. The ideal mechanical advantage value may be grater than the actual value of mechanical advantage.

<h3>What is mechanical advantage ?</h3>

Mechanical advantage is a measure of the ratio of output force to input force in a system, it is used to obtained efficiency of  forces in levers and pulley.

The ideal mechanical advantage is found as;

\rm IMA = \frac{d \pi}{l} \\\\ \rm IMA = \frac{0.812 \times  \pi}{0.318} \\\\ IMA=8.017

The ideal mechanical advantage will be 8.017.

To learn more about the mechanical advantage, refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/7638820

#SPJ1

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borishaifa [10]

Answer:

v₂ = 7/ (0.5)= 14 m/s

Explanation:

Flow rate of the fluid

Flow rate is the amount of fluid that circulates through a section of the pipeline (pipe, pipeline, river, canal, ...) per unit of time.

The formula for calculated the flow rate is:

Q= v*A Formula (1)

Where :

Q is the Flow rate (m³/s)

A is the cross sectional area of a section of the pipe (m²)

v is the speed of the fluid in that section (m/s)

Equation of continuity

The volume flow rate Q for an incompressible fluid at any point along a pipe is the same as the volume flow rate at any other point along a pipe:

Q₁= Q₂

Data

A₁ = 2m² : cross sectional area 1

v₁ = 3.5 m/s : fluid speed through A₁

A₂ = 0.5 m² : cross sectional area 2

Calculation of the fluid speed through A₂

We aply the equation of continuity:

Q₁= Q₂

We aply the equation of Formula (1):

v₁*A₁= v₂*A₂

We replace data

(3.5)*(2)= v₂*(0.5)

7 = v₂*(0.5)

v₂ = 7/ (0.5)

v₂ =  14 m/s

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3 years ago
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A charge of -3.02 μC is fixed in place. From a horizontal distance of 0.0377 m, a particle of mass 9.43 x 10^-3 kg and charge -9
Andreyy89

Answer:

d = 0.0306 m

Explanation:

Here we know that for the given system of charge we have no loss of energy as there is no friction force on it

So we will have

U + K = constant

\frac{kq_1q_2}{r_1} + \frac{1}{2}mv_1^2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_2} + \frac{1}{2}mv_2^2

now we know when particle will reach the closest distance then due to electrostatic repulsion the speed will become zero.

So we have

\frac{(9 \times 10^9)(3.02 \mu C)(9.78 \mu C)}{0.0377} + \frac{1}{2}(9.43 \times 10^{-3})(80.4)^2 = \frac{(9 \times 10^9)(3.02 \mu C)(9.78 \mu C)}{r} + 0

7.05 + 30.5 = \frac{0.266}{r}

r = 7.08 \times 10^{-3} m

so distance moved by the particle is given as

d = r_1 - r_2

d = 0.0377 - 0.00708

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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F is the applied force at a distance 'r' acting in a direction perpendicular to the line joining the point of application and the hinge.

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Explanation:

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3 years ago
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