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sattari [20]
2 years ago
11

What is the kinetic energy of 0.01kg bullet traveling at a velocity of 700m/s ?

Physics
1 answer:
Nata [24]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

kinetic energy is 2, 4, 50 thirties, 2.45 into 10, raise to three Julie.

Explanation:

In the given question, we are told that what is the kinetic energy of mass M equals 0.1 kg bullet traveling at a velocity Velocity is given and 700 m/s. So we know that kinetic energy mm-hmm k equals one half m v squared. So this will be mass is given 0.1 and velocity is 700 so 700 square this is one half 0.1 in two 49 double zero, double zero. This is one-half into 49 double zero. So kinetic energy is 2, 4, 50 thirties, 2.45 into 10, raise to three Julie. This is kinetic energy. Thank you.

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Suppose you wanted to be able to see astronauts on the moon. What is the smallest diameter of the objective lens required to res
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Answer:

A:1.94

Explanation:

cause that the only one on there

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose a clay model of a koala bear has a mass of 0.200 kg and slides on ice at a speed of 0.750 m/s. It runs into another clay
kaheart [24]

Answer:

0.278 m/s

Explanation:

We can answer the problem by using the law of conservation of momentum. In fact, the total momentum before the collision must be equal to the total momentum after the collision.

So we can write:

mu=(m+M)v

where

m = 0.200 kg is the mass of the koala bear

u = 0.750 m/s is the initial velocity of the koala bear

M = 0.350 kg is the mass of the other clay model

v is their final combined velocity

Solving the equation for v, we get

v=\frac{mu}{m+M}=\frac{(0.200)(0.750)}{0.200+0.350}=0.278 m/s

8 0
3 years ago
A country would place a tariff on imported steel to
Whitepunk [10]
. . . 'protect' its domestic steel industry, by
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7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When the magnetic flux through a coil of wire changes, what is generated between the ends of the coil? Which equation predicts t
True [87]

Answer:

induced electromotive force (Voltage)    E = - N dΦ / dt

Explanation:

When the magnetic flux this coil induces a current in each turn of the coil, which is why an induced electromotive force (Voltage) appears at the ends of the coil.

This phenomenon is fully explained by Faraday's law

        E = - dΦ / dt

where in the case of a coil with N turns of has

        E = - N dΦ / dt

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4 0
3 years ago
You want to lean your dad's ladder on a smooth wall. If the mass of ladder is 4.42 kg and coefficient
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

angle minimum   θ = 41.3º

Explanation:

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The rotational equilibrium condition, where we place the axis of rotation on the wall

We assume that counterclockwise rotations are positive

     fr (l sin θ) - N (l cos θ) + W (l/2 cos θ) = 0

     

the friction force formula is

     fr = μ N

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we substitute

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      μ sin θ - cos θ + ½ cos θ= 0

         

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7 0
3 years ago
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