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alexdok [17]
3 years ago
11

Which electromagnetic wave has wavelengths just longer than visible light? A. infrared radiation B. ultraviolet radiation C. mic

rowaves D. radio waves
Physics
2 answers:
Zanzabum3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A). Infrared Radiation

Explanation:

As we know that all electromagnetic waves can propagate without any medium by inducing each other

So here we know that all the electromagnetic waves when arrange in increasing order of energy then

1) Radio Waves

2) Microwaves

3) Infrared radiations

4) Visible light

5) Ultraviolet radiation

6) X rays

7) Gamma Rays

So we will say that wavelength just more than visible light must have energy just less than visible light

So as per above energy order correct answer will be

A). Infrared Radiations

Nady [450]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A and B

Explanation:

Light is part of the spectrum of electromagnetic energy along with radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays and Gamma rays.

Radio waves and microwaves lie on one end of the spectrum, the longer end of electromagnetic energy.

X rays and Gamma rays have very short wavelengths .

I hope it helps!

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I need homework help
KIM [24]
1) the weight of an object at Earth's surface is given by F=mg, where m is the mass of the object and g=9.81 m/s^2 is the gravitational acceleration at Earth's surface. The book in this problem has a mass of m=2.2 kg, therefore its weight is 
F=mg=(2.2 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)=21.6 N

2) On Mars, the value of the gravitational acceleration is different:g=3.7 m/s^2. The formula to calculate the weight of the object on Mars is still the same, but we have to use this value of g instead of the one on Earth: F=mg=(2.2 kg)(3.7 m/s^2)=8.1 N

3) The weight of the textbook on Venus is F=19.6 N. We already know its mass (m=2.2 kg), therefore by re-arranging the usual equation F=mg, we can find the value of the gravitational acceleration g on Venus: 
g= \frac{F}{m}= \frac{ 19.6 N}{2.2 kg}=8.9 m/s^2

4) The mass of the pair of running shoes is m=0.5 kg. Their weight is F=11.55 N, therefore we can find the value of the gravitational acceleration g on Jupiter by re-arranging the usual equation F=mg: 
g= \frac{F}{m} = \frac{11.55 N}{0.5 kg} =23.1 m/s^2

5) The weight of the pair of shoes of m=0.5 kg on Pluto is F=0.3 N. As in the previous step, we can calculate the strength of the gravity g on Pluto as 
g= \frac{F}{m} = \frac{0.3 N}{0.5 kg} =0.6 m/s^2

<span>6) On Earth, the gravity acceleration is </span>g=9.81 m/s^2<span>. The mass of the pair of shoes is m=0.5 kg, therefore their weight on Earth is 
</span>F=mg=(0.5 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)=4.9 N<span>
</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Explain what happens to the pitch of a cell phone ring when the wavelength of a sound wave increases
max2010maxim [7]

You get a more low sound.  

Conversely, when the wavelength becomes shorter you get a more treble sound.

;-)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2. Conner flips a coin up in the air (to determine if he or his sister needs to do the dishes) at an upward velocity of 4.00 m/s
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

5.6

Explanation:

Not so sure

4 0
2 years ago
A block of mass 14.9 kg is pulled to the right by an applied force of 39.4 N. If it moves with constant velocity, how much frict
lakkis [162]

The frictional force is 39.4 N

Explanation:

We can solve this problem by applying Newton's 2nd law of motion: in fact, the net force acting on the block is equal to the product between its mass and its acceleration. So we can write

\sum F = ma

where

\sum F is the net force

m is the mass

a is the acceleration

Here we know that the box is moving with constant velocity, so its acceleration is zero:

a=0

This means that the net force is also zero:

\sum F=0

The net force on the block is given by the applied force, forward, and the frictional force, backward:

\sum F = F_a-F_f=0

where

F_a=39.4 N is the applied force

F_f is the frictional force

Therefore, solving for F_f,

F_f=F_a=39.4 N

Learn more about friction:

brainly.com/question/6217246

brainly.com/question/5884009

brainly.com/question/3017271

brainly.com/question/2235246

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0
3 years ago
Convert 15 joule into erg.​
GuDViN [60]

Answer:

<h2><u>Joule</u><u>:</u></h2>

1 Joule of work is said to be done when a force of 1 Newton is applied to move/displace a body by 1 metre.

1 Joule= 1 Newton × 1 metre

1 Newton is the amount of force required to accelerate body of mass 1 kg by 1m/s²

So units of N is kgm/s²

So,

1 Joule

=1kgm/s² × m

=1kgm²/s²

<h2><u>Erg</u><u>:</u></h2>

1 erg is the amount of work done by a force of 1 dyne exerted for a distance of one centimetre.

1 Erg =1 Dyne × 1 cm

1 dyne is the force required to cause a mass of 1 gram to accelerate at a rate of 1cm/s².

1 Erg=1 gmcm/s² × cm

1 Erg=1 gmcm/s² × cm=1gmcm²/s²

this is what you need to convert 1gmcm²/s² to 1kgm²/s²

<h3><u>what you need to know for conversion</u></h3>

[1gm=0.001kg

1cm²

=1cm ×1cm

=0.01 m × 0.01 m

=0.0001m²

second remains constant

]

So,

1gmcm²/s²

=0.001kg×0.0001m²/s²

=0.001kg×0.0001m²/s² =0.0000001kgm²/s²

Hence,

<h3><u>1 Erg</u><u>=</u><u>0.0000001</u><u> </u><u>Joule</u></h3><h3><u>1</u><u> </u><u>Joule</u><u>=</u><u>1</u><u>0</u><u>,</u><u>0</u><u>0</u><u>0</u><u>,</u><u>0</u><u>0</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>Erg</u></h3>

<h2>⇒15 J=15×10000000 Erg</h2><h2> =150000000 Erg</h2><h2> =1.5×10⁶ Erg</h2>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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