Finding acceleration= final speed-initial speed/time taken (or A=V-U\T)
Finial speed= 27.8s
Initial speed= 0s
Time taken= 5.15
So..
27.8-0/5.15= 5.40m/s (rounded to two decimal places)
The final combined velocity after the collision is 20.2 m/s
Explanation:
We can solve this problem by using the law of conservation of momentum: in fact, in absence of external forces, the total momentum of the two car and of the truck must be conserved before and after the collision.
This means that we can write the following equation:
where:
is the mass of the sport car
is the initial velocity of the car (taking its direction as positive direction)
is the mass of the truck
is the initial velocity of the truck
is the final combined velocity of the car and the truck, after the collision
Re-arranging the equation and substituting the values, we find the velocity after the collision:
And the positive sign indicates their final direction is the same as the initial direction of the two vehicles.
Learn more about momentum here:
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Te direction of the magnetic force for the velocity of the proton in the
-ve y direction will be +ve z direction.
As we know that the right-hand rule is based on the relation of magnetic fields and the forces that they exert on moving charges.When a charged particle moves under a magnetic field, it exerts a force on the particle, which is not in the same direction but different than the direction of the magnetic field.Under the right-hand rule, if we point our pointer finger in the direction of the charged particle is moving and the middle finger is representing the direction of the magnetic field then our thumb depicts the direction of the magnetic force which is exerted on the charged particle.
So, we are given that the direction of the velocity of the proton is in the negative y direction and the direction of the magnetic field is in the positive x direction, so the magnetic force is acting in the positive z direction.
To know more about the right-hand rule refer to the link brainly.com/question/9750730?referrer=searchResults.
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Answer:
1keff=1k1+1k2
see further explanation
Explanation:for clarification
Show that the effective force constant of a series combination is given by 1keff=1k1+1k2. (Hint: For a given force, the total distance stretched by the equivalent single spring is the sum of the distances stretched by the springs in combination. Also, each spring must exert the same force. Do you see why?
From Hooke's law , we know that the force exerted on an elastic object is directly proportional to the extension provided that the elastic limit is not exceeded.
Now the spring is in series combination
F
e
F=ke
k=f/e.........*
where k is the force constant or the constant of proportionality
k=f/e
............................1
also for effective force constant
divide all through by extension
1) Total force is
Ft=F1+F2
Ft=k1e1+k2e2
F = k(e1+e2) 2)
Since force on the 2 springs is the same, so
k1e1=k2e2
e1=F/k1 and e2=F/k2,
and e1+e2=F/keq
Substituting e1 and e2, you get
1/keq=1/k1+1/k2
Hint: For a given force, the total distance stretched by the equivalent single spring is the sum of the distances stretched by the springs in combination.
λ=v/f
λ-wavelength
v-speed
f-frequency
we have the wavelength(6.2 x 10^-6meters) and we use the speed of light which is equal to 3*10^8m/s
6.2*10^-6m=3*10^8m/s/f
f=(3*10^8m/s)/(6.2*10^-6)≈0.48*10^14Hz