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3 years ago

Acceleration involves a change in __________.

2 answers:

7 0

"Acceleration" is any change in speed or direction of motion ...
slowing down, speeding up, or curving away from a straight line.

You and I, and all other students of Physics, must re-educate
people. We have to tell everyone that 'acceleration' does NOT
mean 'speeding up'. AND, it doesn't even necessarily mean
any change in speed.

sweet-ann [11.9K]3 years ago

7 0

Speed. It is used in the equation force = mass X acceleration

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The circuit you should use to find the open-circuit voltage is

fiasKO [112]

Answer:

Incomplete questions check attachment for circuit diagram.

Explanation:

We are going to use superposition

So, we will first open circuit the current source and find the voltage Voc.

So, check attachment for open circuit diagram.

From the diagram

We notice that R3 is in series with R4, so its equivalent is given below

Req(3-4) = R3 + R4

R(34) = 20+40 = 60 kΩ

Notice that R2 is parallel to the equivalent of R3 and R4, then, the equivalent of all this three resistor is

Req(2-3-4) = R2•R(34)/(R2+R(34))

R(234) = (100×60)/(100+60)

R(234) = 37.5 kΩ

We notice that R1 and R(234) are in series, then, we can apply voltage divider rule to find voltage in R(234)

Therefore

V(234) = R(234) / [R1 + R(234)] × V

V(234) = 37.5/(25+37.5) × 100

V(234) = 37.5/62.5 × 100

V(234) = 60V.

Note, this is the voltage in resistor R2, R3 and R4.

Note that, R2 is parallel to R3 and R4. Parallel resistor have the same voltage, then voltage across R2 equals voltage across R34

V(34) = 60V.

Now, we also know that R3 and R4 are in series,

So we can know the voltage across R4 which is the Voc we are looking for.

Using voltage divider

V4 = Voc = R4/(R4 + R(34)) × V(34)

Voc = 40/(40+60) × 60

Voc = 24V

This is the open circuit Voltage

Now, finding the short circuit voltage when we short circuit the voltage source

Check attachment for circuit diagram.

From the circuit we notice that R1 and R2 are in parallel, so it's equivalent becomes

Req(1-2) = R1•R2/(R1+R2)

R(12) = 25×100/(25+100)

R(12) = 20 kΩ

We also notice that the equivalent of Resistor R1 and R2 is in series to R3. Then, the equivalent resistance of the three resistor is

Req(1-2-3) = R(12) + R(3)

R(123) = 20 + 20

R(123) = 40 kΩ

We notice that, the equivalent resistance of the resistor R1, R2, and R3 is in series to resistor R4.

So using current divider rule to find the current in resistor R4.

I(4) = R(123) / [R4+R(123)] × I

I(4) = 40/(40+40) × 8

I(4) = 4mA

Then, using ohms law, we can find the voltage across the resistor 4 and the voltage is the required Voc

V = IR

V4 = Voc = I4 × R4

Voc = 4×10^-3 × 40×10^3

Voc = 160V

Then, the sum of the short circuit voltage and the open circuit voltage will give the required Voc

Voc = Voc(open circuit) + Voc(short circuit)

Voc = 24 + 160

Voc = 184V.

3 0

2 years ago

The largest origin of nonpoint pollution in the united states is A) rain B) industry C) agriculture

guajiro [1.7K]

The answer would be : A

6 0

3 years ago

Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test

weqwewe [10]

Answer:

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

$F=qvB sin \theta$

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

$q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C$ is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

$\theta=65^{\circ}$ is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

$F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N$

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

The right hand rule gives the direction of the force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$

where here we have:

$m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg$ is the mass of the alpha particle

$v=2155 m/s$ is the speed of the alpha particle

$q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C$ is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

$r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m$

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

$f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}$

where here:

$q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C$ is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

$m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg$ is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

$f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz$

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

$\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}$

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

$\Delta \Phi$ is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

$\Delta t$ is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if $\Delta \Phi \neq 0$ , which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.