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Alex_Xolod [135]
3 years ago
12

How much time would it take for an

Physics
1 answer:
Elina [12.6K]3 years ago
4 0

36 and a half hours

Explanation:

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denis-greek [22]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Mars is the planet between Earth and Jupiter, or the 4th planet from the Sun.

8 0
3 years ago
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A motorcycle begins at rest and accelerates uniformly S7.9 we want to find a time to take the motorcycle to reach a speed of 100
Len [333]

The motorbike reaches 100 km/h in 3.5 seconds

Explanation:

The motion of the motorbike is a uniformly accelerated motion (= constant acceleration), therefore we can use the following suvat equation:

v=u+at

where

v is the final velocity

u is the initial velocity

a is the acceleration

t is the time

For the motorbike in this problem,

u = 0 (it starts from rest)

v = 100 km/h = 27.8 m/s is the final velocity

a=7.9 m/s^2 is the acceleration

Solving for t, we find the time it takes for the bike to reach that velocity:

t=\frac{v-u}{a}=\frac{27.8-0}{7.9}=3.5 s

Learn more about accelerated motion:

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6 0
3 years ago
The gravitational force between two objects that
leonid [27]

Answer:

The answer to your question is    m₂ = 38.5 kg

Explanation:

Data

distance = d = 2.1 x 10⁻¹ m

Force = 3.2 x 10⁻⁶ N

m₁ = 55 kg

m₂ = ?

G = 6.67 x 10 ⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg²

Process

1.- To solve this problem use Newton's law of Universal Gravitation.

             F = G m₁m₂ / r²

-Solve for m₂

            m₂ = Fr² / Gm₁

2.- Substitution

            m₂ = (3.2 x 10⁻⁶)(2.1 x 10⁻¹)² / (6.67 x 10⁻¹¹)(55)

3.- Simplification

            m₂ = 1.411 x 10⁻⁷ / 3.669 x 10⁻⁹

4.- Result

            m₂ = 38.5 kg

5 0
3 years ago
Plzzzzz helppppp plzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz
Helen [10]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

ap3x

6 0
2 years ago
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The value of 1.0004 to the power 1 by 2 using Binomial approximation is​
IgorLugansk [536]

Given:

The given value is (1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}.

To find:

The value of the given expression by using the Binomial approximation.

Explanation:

We have,

(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}

It can be written as:

(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=(1+0.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}

(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.0004      [\because (1+x)^n=1+nx]

(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+0.0002

(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1.0002

Therefore, the approximate value of the given expression is 1.0002.

3 0
3 years ago
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