Answer: Machanical advantage of the machine is 1.86
Explanation: Machanical advantage of a machine is the ratio of the Force to overcome which is the load in this case 24kg * 10= 240N to the force exerted(Effort) to overcome the load in this case 129N.
So, we have
MA = load/effort
= 240N/129N
= 1.86.
We know V=IR (Ohm's law).
We are given R=180Ω and I=0.1A, then V=(0.1AΩ)(180Ω). Therefore
V=18V
Answer:
181.48 N
Explanation:
Calculate the area :
Area = pi * r² ;
pi = 3.14 ; r1 = 90cm /100 = 0.9m ; r2 = 10/100 = 0.1m
Area 1, A1 = 3.14 * 0.1² = 0.0314 m²
Area 2, A2 = 3.14 * 0.9² = 2.5434 m²
Force, F = mass * acceleration due to gravity
F2 = 1500 * 9.8 = 14700 N
Force 1 / Area 1 = Force 2 / Area 2
Force 1 = (Force 2 / Area 2), * Area 1
Force 1 = (14700 / 2.5434) * 0.0314
Force = 5779.6650 * 0.0314
= 181.48 N
Answer:
Given:
m=1000kg
u= 16.7m/s
v=0m/s
F=8000N
Required:
s=?
Solution:
F=m × a
8000N=1000kg × a
a=8m/s^2
Since it decelerate a= -8m/s^2
v^2 = u^2 + 2as
s=v^2 - u^2 / 2a
s= 0 - (16.7m/s)^2 / 2 × -8m/s^2
s= -278.89/-16
s= 17.43m
The car travels approximately 17.43m before it stops
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Probably because of the drag coefficient and the density of the liquid.
