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Rama09 [41]
2 years ago
15

Calculate the kinetic energy of the following object.

Physics
1 answer:
Arte-miy333 [17]2 years ago
5 0
(m.v^2)/2

(5,97x10^24 x 461^2)/2
= 6,34x10^29
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The Earth’s diameter is about 8,000 miles; our Moon’s diameter is about 2,000 miles; how
Vitek1552 [10]

Three moons can fit inside the volume of the sun.

<h3>What is the moon?</h3>

The moon is a non luminous body found in the space. It could cause a solar eclipse when it comes between the sun and the earth.

Since the Earth’s diameter is about 8,000 miles and the Moon’s diameter is about 2,000 miles, to obtain the number of moons that could fit inside the sun we have;

8,000 miles/ 2,000 miles = 3

Hence, three moons can fit inside the volume of the sun.

Learn more about the moon:brainly.com/question/13538936

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
S Four point charges each having charge Q are located at the corners of a square having sides of length a. Find expressions for(
Ket [755]

The total electric potential at the center of the square due to the four charges is V  = √2Q/πÈa.

<h3>What do you mean by electric potential? </h3>

The amount of work needed to move a unit charge from a reference point to a specific point against an electric field. It's SI unit is volt.       

V = kq/r

Where V represents electric potential, K is coulomb constant, q  is Charge and r is distance between any  two around charge to the point charge.

Electric potential at O due to four charges is given by,

V = 4KQ/ r

where, r = √2a/2 = a/√2

V = 4k × Q√2/a

V  = √2Q/πÈa

The total electric potential at the center of the square due to the four charges is V  = √2Q/πÈa.

To learn more about electric potential refer to:

brainly.com/question/12645463

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
Why do planets speed up as they get closer to the sun?:
Serggg [28]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Gravity is the main reason that make our planets to pull each other

5 0
1 year ago
Find the Maclaurin series for f(x) using the definition of a Maclaurin series. [Assume that f has a power series expansion. Do n
jenyasd209 [6]

The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.

2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).

3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =

3 0
2 years ago
How do I find the approximate velocity of "the object", on the graph at 5 seconds?
MakcuM [25]

First, foremost, and most critically, you must look at the graph, and critically
examine its behavior from just before until just after the 5-seconds point.

Without that ability ... since the graph is nowhere to be found ... I am hardly
in a position to assist you in the process.


7 0
3 years ago
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