What inner planet has enough gravity to hold on to all its gases

Rank the following from highest to lowest priority according to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system: -CH2CH3, -CHCH2, -CCH, -CH3.

mario62 [17]

Answer:

The order will be:

CCH > CHCH₂ > CH₂CH₃> CH₃

Explanation:

According to Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system we rank the groups based on the atomic number of directly attached atom with the chiral carbon.

For example: between C and H, we rank Carbon first.

If the same atoms are attached for different groups then we prioritized based on the second element with highest atomic number.

For example:

Among CH₃ and C₂H₅, the priority will be given to C₂H₅.

If an atom is double or triple bonded to the directly attached atom then each pi bond is considered to be a new atom.

Hence CH=CH₂ means, that there are two carbons attached to CH carbon.

So the order based on above selection rules will be:

CCH > CHCH₂ > CH₂CH₃> CH₃

7 0

3 years ago

The reaction described by H2(g)+I2(g)⟶2HI(g) has an experimentally determined rate law of rate=k[H2][I2] Some proposed mechanism

MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

Mechanism A and B are consistent with observed rate law

Mechanism A is consistent with the observation of J. H. Sullivan

Explanation:

In a mechanism of a reaction, the rate is determinated by the slow step of the mechanism.

In the proposed mechanisms:

Mechanism A

(1) H2(g)+I2(g)→2HI(g)(one-step reaction)

Mechanism B

(1) I2(g)⇄2I(g)(fast, equilibrium)

(2) H2(g)+2I(g)→2HI(g) (slow)

Mechanism C

(1) I2(g) ⇄ 2I(g)(fast, equilibrium)

(2) I(g)+H2(g) ⇄ HI(g)+H(g) (slow)

(3) H(g)+I(g)→HI(g) (fast)

The rate laws are:

A: rate = k₁ [H2] [I2]

B: rate = k₂ [H2] [I]²

As:

K-1 [I]² = K1 [I2]:

rate = k' [H2] [I2]

Where K' = K1 * K2

C: rate = k₁ [H2] [I]

As:

K-1 [I]² = K1 [I2]:

rate = k' [H2] [I2]^1/2

Thus, just mechanism A and B are consistent with observed rate law

In the equilibrium of B, you can see the I-I bond is broken in a fast equilibrium (That means the rupture of the bond is not a determinating step in the reaction), but in mechanism A, the fast rupture of I-I bond could increase in a big way the rate of the reaction. Thus, just mechanism A is consistent with the observation of J. H. Sullivan

5 0

3 years ago

Magnesium and nitric acid to give magnesiumnitrate and water balancing equation

marusya05 [52]

Balanced equation:

Mg + 2 HNO3 —> Mg(NO3)2 + H2

This is a metal + acid reaction giving salt and hydrogen (not water).

3 0

2 years ago

Write the oxidation and reduction half reactions;

luda_lava [24]

Answer:

a)

$Fe^{2+}$ ⇒ $Fe^{3+}+e^-$

$Br_2+2e^-$ ⇒ $2Br^-$

b)

$Mg$ ⇒ $Mg^{2+}+2e^-$

$Cr^{3+}+e^-$ ⇒ $Cr^{3+}$

Explanation:

A)

Remember that positive number superscripts mean electrons lack and negative numbers mean electrons 'excess' (if we compare it with the neutral element). So, for the case of Fe2+ which is converted to Fe3+, we know that in Fe2+ there is a two electrons lack, while in Fe3+ there is a 3 electrons lack; it means that Fe2+ was converted to Fe3+ but releasing one electron:

$Fe^{2+}$ ⇒ $Fe^{3+}+e^-$

The same analysis is applied to Br2; Br2 is a molecule which is said to have a zero superscript because it is an apolar covalent bond; and it is converted to Br-, which, according to what I wrote above, means that there is a one electron excess. So, Br2 must have received an electron in order to change to Br-; but Br2 can't change to Br- as simple as that because Br2 is a molecule, not an atom; it is a molecule that has two Br atoms, so, Br2 must give two Br- ions as products, but receiving one electron for each one:

$Br_2+2e^-$ ⇒ $2Br^-$

b)

Applying the same, in Mg2+ there is a 2 electrons lack, and in Mg is not electron lack (its superscript is zero), so Mg must have released two electrons in order to change to Mg2+:

$Mg$ ⇒ $Mg^{2+}+2e^-$

Cr3+ has a 3 electrons lack, and Cr2+ a two electrons one, so, Cr3+ must receive an electron to convert to Cr2+:

$Cr^{3+}+e^-$ ⇒ $Cr^{3+}$

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Dilution question In many of the experiments, you will be asked to prepare a standard solution by diluting a stock solution. You

riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

We could do two 1:50 dilutions and one 1:4 dilutions.

Explanation:

Hi there!

A solution that is 1000 ug/ ml (or 1000 mg / l) is 1000 ppm.

Knowing that 1 ppm = 1000 ppb, 100 ppb is 0.1 ppm.

Then, we have to dilute the stock solution (1000 ppm / 0.1 ppm) 10000 times.

We could do two 1:50 dilutions and one 1:4 dilutions (50 · 50 · 4 = 10000). Since the first dilution is 1:50, you will use the smallest quantity of the stock solution (if we use the 10.00 ml flask):

First step (1:50 dilution):

Take 0.2 ml of the stock solution using the third dispenser (20 - 200 ul), and pour it in the 10.00 ml flask. Fill with water to the mark (concentration : 1000 ppm / 50 = 20 ppm).

Step 2 (1:50 dilution):

Take 0.2 ml of the solution made in step 1 and pour it in another 10.00 ml flask. Fill with water to the mark. Concentration 20 ppm/ 50 = 0.4 ppm)

Step 3 (1:4 dilution):

Take 2.5 ml of the solution made in step 3 (using the first dispenser 1 - 5 ml) and pour it in a 10.00 ml flask. Fill with water to the mark. Concentration 0.4 ppm / 4 = 0.1 ppm = 100 ppb.

6 0

3 years ago