All categories

3 years ago

Converting 15 miles to kilometer

Physics

2 answers:

Dmitry [639]3 years ago

8 0

15 miles to kilometers would be: 24.14 kilometers

dimaraw [331]3 years ago

5 0

1 mile = 1609.344... meters

1,000 meters = 1 km

(15 miles) x (1609 m/mile) x (1 km/1000 m) =

(15 x 1609 / 1000) (mile-meter-km / mile-meter) = <em>24.14 km</em>

You might be interested in

How are energy, work ang power related?

jolli1 [7]

Answer:

Work is the change in energy and power is the rate of doing work.

5 0

2 years ago

What is weightlessness ?

VMariaS [17]

Answer:

The state of being free from the effects of gravity.

7 0

3 years ago

A4 kg bowling ball begins rolling down a at bowling alloy at 6 m/s . When it strikes the pins, it is estimated to be moving at 5

Paul [167]

Answer:

Energy lost due to friction is 22 J

Explanation:

Mass of the ball m = 4 kg

Initially velocity of ball v = 6 m/sec

So kinetic energy of the ball $KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

$KE=\frac{1}{2}\times 4\times 6^2=72J$

Now due to friction velocity decreases to 5 m/sec

Kinetic energy become

$KE=\frac{1}{2}\times 4\times 5^2=50J$

Therefore energy lost due to friction = 72 -50 = 22 J

8 0

3 years ago

URGENT PLEASE ANSWER THIS ASAP I WILL MARK YOU THE BRAINLIEST !!!

kykrilka [37]

Answer:

C would be the answer

Explanation:

Hope this helps! :)

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The force of the added water produces a torque on the dam. In a simple model, if the torque due to the water were enough to caus

Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

The appropriate response is " $\tau=\frac{1}{6} PgLh^3$ ". A further explanation is described below.

Explanation:

The torque ( $\tau$ ) produced by the force on the dam will be:

⇒ $d \tau=XdF$

On applying integration both sides, we get

⇒ $\tau = \int_{0}^{a}x pgL(h-x)dx$

⇒ $= pgL\int_{0}^{h}(h-x)dx$

⇒ $=pgL[\frac{h^3}{2} -\frac{h^3}{3} ]$

⇒ $=\frac{1}{6} PgLh^3$

8 0

2 years ago