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Airida [17]
3 years ago
12

Water flows through two smooth pipes with the same diameter and length as shown below. ipe is twice that through the first-pipe.

Both flows are The flow rate through the s laminar and fully _developed. Circle the letter of the statement that is correct about the pressure drop (pressure difference over the pipe length). (a) Pipe 1 has the higher pressure drop. (b) Pipe 2 has the higher pressure drop. (c) Pipes 1 and 2 have the same pressure drop. (d) T here is not enough information to answer the question.
Engineering
1 answer:
Alisiya [41]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The right answer is (d)

Explanation:

The pressure drop in smooth pipes with laminar flow is determined by the resistance of the fluid to flow, which is controlled by Reynolds's number. At higher Re, higher drop. But in this case, we have no information about the speed of the fluid in each pipe, and the ipe is not related to that speed. therefore we don´t have the information to say that any of the other options are the right ones

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7.35 and 7.36 For the beam and loading shown, (a) draw the shear and bending-moment diagrams, (b) determine the maximum absolute
Crank

Maximum absolute values of the shear = 28 KN

Maximum absolute values of bending moment = 5.7 KN.m

<h3>How to draw Shear Force and Bending Moment Diagram?</h3>

A) We can see the beam loaded in the first image attached.

For the shear diagram, let us calculate the shear from point load to point load.

From A to C, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 - V = 0

V = -20 KN

From C to D, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 + 48 - V = 0

V = 28 KN

From D to E, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 + 48 - 20 - V = 0

V = 8 KN

From E to B, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 + 48 - 20 - 20 - V = 0

V = -12 KN

For the bending moment diagram, let us calculate the bending moment from point load to point load.

At point A, the bending moment would be zero. Thus, M_A = 0 KN.m

At point C, taking moment about point C and equating to zero gives;

M_C = 0. Thus; 20(0.225) + M = 0

M = -4.5 KN.m

At point D, taking moment about point D and equating to zero gives;

M_D = 0. Thus; 20(0.525) - 48(0.3) + M = 0

M = 3.9 KN.m

At point E, taking moment about point E and equating to zero gives;

M_D = 0. Thus; 20(0.75) - 48(0.525) + 20(0.225) + M = 0

M = 5.7 KN.m

At point B, taking moment about point E and equating to zero gives;

M_E = 0. Thus; 20(1.05) - 48(0.825) + 20(0.525) + (20 * 0.3) + M = 0

M = 2.1 KN.m

2) From the attached diagrams, we can deduce that;

Maximum absolute values of the shear = 28 KN

Maximum absolute values of bending moment = 5.7 KN.m

Read more about shear force & bending moment diagram at; brainly.com/question/14834487

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4 0
1 year ago
Example – a 100 kW, 60 Hz, 1175 rpm motor is coupled to a flywheel through a gearbox • the kinetic energy of the revolving compo
rjkz [21]

Answer:

1200KJ

Explanation:

The heat dissipated in the rotor while coming down from its running speed to zero, is equal to three times its running kinetic energy.

P (rotor-loss) = 3 x K.E

P = 3 x 300 = 900 KJ

After coming to zero, the motor again goes back to running speed of 1175 rpm but in opposite direction. The KE in this case would be;

KE = 300 KJ

Since it is in opposite direction, it will also add up to rotor loss

P ( rotor loss ) = 900 + 300 = 1200 KJ

7 0
2 years ago
Free brainlist because im new and i just want to but you have t friend me first
Amiraneli [1.4K]
Okay sure.









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4 0
2 years ago
Two common methods of improving fuel efficiency of a vehicle are to reduce the drag coefficient and the frontal area of the vehi
qaws [65]

Answer:

\Delta V = 209.151\,L, \Delta C = 217.517\,USD

Explanation:

The drag force is equal to:

F_{D} = C_{D}\cdot \frac{1}{2}\cdot \rho_{air}\cdot v^{2}\cdot A

Where C_{D} is the drag coefficient and A is the frontal area, respectively. The work loss due to drag forces is:

W = F_{D}\cdot \Delta s

The reduction on amount of fuel is associated with the reduction in work loss:

\Delta W = (F_{D,1} - F_{D,2})\cdot \Delta s

Where F_{D,1} and F_{D,2} are the original and the reduced frontal areas, respectively.

\Delta W = C_{D}\cdot \frac{1}{2}\cdot \rho_{air}\cdot v^{2}\cdot (A_{1}-A_{2})\cdot \Delta s

The change is work loss in a year is:

\Delta W = (0.3)\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot (1.20\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}})\cdot (27.778\,\frac{m}{s})^{2}\cdot [(1.85\,m)\cdot (1.75\,m) - (1.50\,m)\cdot (1.75\,m)]\cdot (25\times 10^{6}\,m)

\Delta W = 2.043\times 10^{9}\,J

\Delta W = 2.043\times 10^{6}\,kJ

The change in chemical energy from gasoline is:

\Delta E = \frac{\Delta W}{\eta}

\Delta E = \frac{2.043\times 10^{6}\,kJ}{0.3}

\Delta E = 6.81\times 10^{6}\,kJ

The changes in gasoline consumption is:

\Delta m = \frac{\Delta E}{L_{c}}

\Delta m = \frac{6.81\times 10^{6}\,kJ}{44000\,\frac{kJ}{kg} }

\Delta m = 154.772\,kg

\Delta V = \frac{154.772\,kg}{0.74\,\frac{kg}{L} }

\Delta V = 209.151\,L

Lastly, the money saved is:

\Delta C = \left(\frac{154.772\,kg}{0.74\,\frac{kg}{L} }\right)\cdot (1.04\,\frac{USD}{L} )

\Delta C = 217.517\,USD

4 0
3 years ago
If two statements are inconsistent with each other, at least one of them must be false. a)-True b)-False
olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

a)- True

Explanation:

If two statements are inconsistent with each other it means that they are not telling the same, if they are not telling the same it means that only one of them COULD be true, but there is a third option where the two statements are wrong and non statement is telling the true...so:

If we have two statements inconsistent with each other, AT LEAST one of the statements is false.

7 0
3 years ago
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