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3 years ago

5

1 hr 16 minutes equal how many minutes ?

1 answer:

Len [333]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

76 minutes.

Explanation:

There are 60 minutes in an hour + 16 minutes= 76 minutes.

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If the Moon had twice as much mass and still orbits Earth at the same distance, ocean bulges on Earth would be

Sophie [7]

Ocean bulges on Earth would be bigger if the Moon had twice as much mass and yet orbited the planet at the same distance. Option B is correct.

<h3>What is ocean bludge?</h3>

The fluid and moveable ocean water are drawn towards the moon by the gravitational attraction between the moon and the Earth.

The ocean nearest to the moon experiences a bulge as a result, and as the Earth rotates, the affected seas' locations shift.

The Moon's bulges in the oceans would be larger if it had twice the mass and orbited Earth at the same distance.

Hence option B is corect.

To learn more about the ocean bulge refer;

brainly.com/question/14373016

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1 year ago

Use the following terms in the same sentence:proton, neutron ,and isotope

UkoKoshka [18]

Atoms of the same element having equal numbers of protons, but different numbers of neutrons is called isotope.

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3 years ago

A point charge with a charge q1 = 4.00 μC is held stationary at the origin. A second point charge with a charge q2 = -4.10 μC mo

GrogVix [38]

Answer:

W = -0.480 J

Explanation:

given,

q₁ = 4 μC

q₂ = -4.10 μC

$W = kq_1q_2(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b})$

$b = \sqrt{(0.27-0)^2+(0.27-0)^2}$

b = 0.381

k = 8.99 × 10⁹ Nm²/C²

$W = 8.99\times 10^9\times 4\times 10^{-6}\times (-4.1 \times 10^{-6})(\dfrac{1}{0.17}+\dfrac{1}{0.381})$

$W = [-147.436\times (5.88-2.62)\times 10^{-3}]J$

W = -0.480 J

Work done by the electric force W = -0.480 J

4 0

3 years ago

Determine the field strength, E, experienced by a test charge, q, if a charge of 7.0 × 10-5 coulombs is placed on q and a force

kkurt [141]

Formula for feild strength= F/q
q=7.0^10-5 coulombs
F=5.2 N
E=5.2 / 7.0^10-5
E=

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

I need both parts please (a) Given a material with an attenuation coefficient (a) of 0.6/cm, what is the intensity of a beam (wi

Masteriza [31]

Answer:

<h3>a.</h3>

After it has traveled through 1 cm : $I(1 \ cm) = 0.5488 I_0$

After it has traveled through 2 cm : $I(2 \ cm) = 0.3012 I_0$

<h3>b.</h3>

After it has traveled through 1 cm : $od( 1\ cm) = 0.2606$

After it has traveled through 2 cm : $od( 2\ cm) = 0.5211$

Explanation:

<h2>a.</h2>

For this problem, we can use the Beer-Lambert law. For constant attenuation coefficient $\mu$ the formula is:

$I(x) = I_0 e^{-\mu x}$

where I is the intensity of the beam, $I_0$ is the incident intensity and x is the length of the material traveled.

For our problem, after travelling 1 cm:

$I(1 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6 \frac{1}{cm} \ 1 cm}$

$I(1 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6}$

$I(1 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6}$

$I(1 \ cm) = 0.5488 \ I_0$

After travelling 2 cm:

$I(2 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6 \frac{1}{cm} \ 2 cm}$

$I(2 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 1.2}$

$I(2 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 1.2}$

$I(2 \ cm) = 0.3012 \ I_0$

<h2>b</h2>

The optical density od is given by:

$od(x) = - log_{10} ( \frac{I(x)}{I_0} )$ .

So, after travelling 1 cm:

$od( 1\ cm) = - log_{10} ( \frac{0.5488 \ I_0}{I_0} )$

$od( 1\ cm) = - log_{10} ( 0.5488 )$

$od( 1\ cm) = - ( - 0.2606)$

$od( 1\ cm) = 0.2606$

After travelling 2 cm:

$od( 2\ cm) = - log_{10} ( \frac{0.3012 \ I_0}{I_0} )$

$od( 2\ cm) = - log_{10} ( 0.3012 )$

$od( 2\ cm) = - ( - 0.5211)$

$od( 2\ cm) = 0.5211$

3 0

3 years ago