Answer:
the final potential energy of this system is 3U0/10
Explanation:
We are given
charge at left end and another test charge at point p
Potential energy is given by =
where k is electrostatics constant = 
Q1 = first charge , Q2= test charge
R= distance between charges
potential at point p
U0 = k*Q1*Q2 /3 ⇒ kq1q2 = 3U0 ..............1
now the test charge moves to point R
using Pytahgoreou theorem
R(distance) =
= 10
New Potential energy
U1 = kq1*q2 / 10
substituting kq1q2 = 3U0 from 1
U1 = 3U0/10
So this is the final potential energy of this system.
So, C = kE°A/d
putting the values,
C
= 3.8 × 8.85×10^(-12) × 3.14×1.5×1.5 × 10^(-6)/0.43 × 10^(-3)
so, 1.02 × 10^(-13)
so the most appropriate answer is 2 ...that is
1.4 × 10^(-13) ....answer !!
Answer:
A)
B)
C)
Explanation:
Given that:
- no. of turns i the coil,

- area of the coil,

- time interval of rotation,

- intensity of magnetic field,

(A)
Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
So, magnetic flux is given as:
..................................(1)
is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.


(B)
In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
∴ 
From eq. (1)


(C)
According to the Faraday's Law we have:



I did not see the post. But if she actually needs help She can dm me. keep y'all's head up❤