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AURORKA [14]
3 years ago
5

Legacy issues $570,000 of 8.5%, four-year bonds dated January 1, 2019, that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31

. They are issued at $508,050 when the market rate is 12%.
1. Determine the total bond interest expense to be recognized.
Total bond interest expense over life of bonds:
Amount repaid:
8 payments of $24,225 $193,800
Par value at maturity 570,000
Total repaid 763,800
Less amount borrowed 645 669
Total bond interest expense $118.131
2. Prepare a straight-line amortization table for the bonds' first two years.
Semiannual Period End Unamortized Discount Carrying Value
01/01/2019
06/30/2019
12/31/2019
06/30/2020
12/31/2020
3. Record the interest payment and amortization on June 30. Note:
Date General Journal Debit Credit
June 30
4. Record the interest payment and amortization on December 31.
Date General Journal Debit Credit
December 31
Physics
1 answer:
choli [55]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1) Determine the total bond interest expense to be recognized.

Total bond interest expense over life of bonds:

Amount repaid:    

8 payments of $24,225:           $193,800    

Par value at maturity:                 $570,000    

Total repaid:                                   $763800 (193,800 + 570,000)  

Less amount borrowed:         $508050    

Total bond interest expense: $255750 (763800 - 508,050)

2)Prepare a straight-line amortization table for the bonds' first two years.

Semiannual Interest Period­ End; Unamortized Discount; Carrying Value

01/01/2019                                      61,950                           508,050  

06/30/2019                                      54,206                          515,794  

12/31/2019                                       46,462                         523,538  

06/30/2020                                       38,718                        531,282  

12/31/2020                                         30,974                          539,026

3) Record the interest payment and amortization on June 30:

June 30            Bond interest expense, dr                         31969  

                       Discount on bonds payable, Cr     (61950/8)  7743.75

                                        Cash, Cr                     ( 570000*8.5%/2)  24225  

4) Record the interest payment and amortization on December 31:

Dec 31                 Bond interest expense, Dr               31969  

                           Discount on bonds payable, Cr  7744  

                                    Cash, Cr                                24225

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a)

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N (+x axis)

F_{B_x}=0

F_{B_y}=0

b)

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N (+x axis)

F_{B_x}=0

F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N (+z axis)

c)

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N (+x axis)

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F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N (-x axis)

Explanation:

a)

The electric force exerted on a charged particle is given by

F=qE

where

q is the charge

E is the electric field

For a positive charge, the direction of the force is the same as the electric field.

In this problem:

q=+4.9\mu C=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C is the charge

E_x=+242 N/C is the electric field, along the x-direction

So the electric force (along the x-direction) is:

F_{E_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(242)=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N

towards positive x-direction.

The magnetic force instead is given by

F=qvB sin \theta

where

q is the charge

v is the velocity of the charge

B is the magnetic field

\theta is the angle between the directions of v and B

Here the charge is stationary: this means v=0, therefore the magnetic force due to each component of the magnetic field is zero.

b)

In this case, the particle is moving along the +x axis.

The magnitude of the electric force does not depend on the speed: therefore, the electric force on the particle here is the same as in part a,

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N (towards positive x-direction)

Concerning the magnetic force, we have to analyze the two different fields:

- B_x: this field is parallel to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, \theta=0^{\circ}, so the force due to this field is zero.

- B_y: this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, \theta=90^{\circ}. Therefore, \theta=90^{\circ}, so the force due to this field is:

F_{B_y}=qvB_y

where:

q=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C is the charge

v=345 m/s is the velocity

B_y = +1.9 T is the magnetic field

Substituting,

F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N

And the direction of this force can be found using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: direction of the velocity (+x axis)

- Middle finger: direction of the magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: direction of the force (+z axis)

c)

As in part b), the electric force has not change, since it does not depend on the veocity of the particle:

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N (+x axis)

For the field B_x, the velocity (+z axis) is now perpendicular to the magnetic field (+x axis), so the force is

F_{B_x}=qvB_x

And by substituting,

F_{B_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+x axis)

- Thumb: force (+y axis)

For the field B_y, the velocity (+z axis) is also perpendicular to the magnetic field (+y axis), so the force is

F_{B_y}=qvB_y

And by substituting,

F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: force (-y axis)

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3 years ago
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