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tia_tia [17]
3 years ago
10

In AA&E storage facilities, why must drainage structures be secured if they cross the fence line and meet certain size requi

rements?
Physics
1 answer:
Likurg_2 [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

As an additional security measure in an AA&E storage facilities, securing drainage structures  must be considered if their cross section is greater than 96 inches  and any dimension is greater  than 6 inches, they must be  barred and welded at the  intersections to prevent any  human from crawling into the  area.

Explanation:

U.S. national security relys on ensuring DoD sensitive or classified assets such as classified material, arms, ammunition, and explosives  (AA&E) and nuclear weapons, in properly safeguard facilites and storage containers, voiding DoD assets loss or  compromise and additional to supplemental intrusion detection systems and guard patrols, security lighting, communications, fences and clear zones, drainage structures, key control, and other security measures required to protect  AA&E.

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Which situation would deplete freshwater?
sasho [114]

Answer:

If freshwater consumption was greater than freshwater renewal.

Explanation:

Similar to another Brainly answer :O

5 0
3 years ago
A box is placed on a conveyor belt that moves with a constant speed of 1.05 m/s. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

The box stops in 0.139 seconds, after moving 7.29cm (0.0729m) backwards relative to the belt.

Explanation:

As the box is initially at rest relative to the earth, it is moving backwards with a speed of 1.05m/s relative to the belt. Then, the frictional force acts on the box to make it stop relative to the belt. So, we first have to write the equations of motion of the box in each axis:

x: f_k=ma\implies a=\frac{f_k}{m} \\\\y: N-mg=0\implies N=mg

Since the frictional force f_k is equal to f_k=\mu_k N=\mu_k mg, then we have that the acceleration is:

a=\frac{\mu_k mg}{m}=\mu_k g

Now, from the definition of acceleration we get:

a=\frac{v-v_0}{t}\implies t=\frac{v-v_0}{a}

And, as the final velocity is zero because the box gets to a stop, we have:

t=-\frac{v_0}{a}=-\frac{v_0}{\mu_k g}

(Don't worry about the negative sign. It will disappear because the initial velocity is also negative, since we take the box initially moving backwards)

Then, plugging in the given values, we calculate the time:

t=-\frac{(-1.05m/s)}{0.770(9.81m/s^{2})}=0.139s

In words, the time the box takes to stop sliding relative to the belt is 0.139s.

The displacement of the box in this time, is given by the kinematics formula:

v^{2}=v_0^{2}+2ax\implies x=-\frac{v_0^{2}}{2\mu_kg}

Finally, we calculate the displacement:

x=-\frac{(1.05m/s)^{2} }{2(0.770)(9.81m/s^2)}=-0.0729m=-7.29cm

This means that the box moves 7.29cm backwards relative to the belt.

4 0
3 years ago
If the pendulum took longer to complete one oscillation, how would the graph change?
pickupchik [31]

We don't know what kind of graph it is.

For example, it might be a graph of the pendulum's distance from center,

angle from center, speed, acceleration, total distance swung since it was

started, mass, weight, temperature, etc.


If the graph shows the pendulum's distance from center, angle from center,

speed, or acceleration, then the graph will look like a wave, with the period

of the wave being the period of the pendulum's oscillation. If the pendulum

took longer to complete one oscillation, that means its PERIOD increased,

and the distance between the peaks of the graph would be longer.


If it was a graph of total distance the pendulum swung since it was started,

the graph wouldn't look like a wave, just a steadily rising wiggle line. If the

pendulum took longer to complete one oscillation, the wiggles in the line

would be farther apart, and the average slope of any large section of the

line would be less.


If it was a graph of the pendulum's mass, weight, temperature, cost, etc.,

then the graph would be a horizontal line, and nothing that might change

the period of oscillation would have any effect on the graph.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which option would it be
guapka [62]
It would be 4 atm, because the way to figure out the final pressure is that (P1)(V1)=(P2)(V2)

meaning that the original pressure x original volume is equal to the final pressure x final volume. This gas law is called Boyle's law if you'd like to learn more about it.

But (1 atm)(40 mL)=(4 atm)(10 mL)

So it would be the second choice.
7 0
3 years ago
I left a location by 6:38am and arrived a new location by 6: 58am. How do I calculate the time spent?
jolli1 [7]

Answer:20 minutes

Explanation:

06:58am - 06:38am =20 minutes

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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