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bonufazy [111]
3 years ago
10

Steven carefully places a m = 1.85 kg wooden block on a frictionless ramp so that the block begins to slide down the ramp from r

est. The ramp makes an angle of θ = 51.3 ° up from the horizontal. Which forces do nonzero work on the block as it slides down the ramp?
Physics
1 answer:
Helen [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Gravity force

Explanation:

We are given that

Mass of wooden block,m=1.85 kg

\theta=51.3^{\circ}

We have to find the force which do non zero work on the block as it slides down the ramp.

When a block slides down the ramp on a frictionless surface .

Then, weight act on the wooden block in downward direction.

We know that weight is that force which act on the body due to gravity.

Then, we can say that the force which do nonzero work on the block as it slides down the ramp is gravity force.

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A particular car engine operates between temperatures of 440°C (inside the cylinders of the engine) and 20°C (the temperature of
Step2247 [10]

One of the concepts to be used to solve this problem is that of thermal efficiency, that is, that coefficient or dimensionless ratio calculated as the ratio of the energy produced and the energy supplied to the machine.

From the temperature the value is given as

\eta = 1-\frac{T_L}{T_H}

Where,

T_L = Cold focus temperature

T_H = Hot spot temperature

Our values are given as,

T_L = 20\° C = (20+273) K = 293 K

T_H = 440\° C = (440+273) K = 713 K

Replacing we have,

\eta = 1-\frac{T_L}{T_H}

\eta = 1-\frac{293}{713}

\eta = 0.589

Therefore the maximum possible efficiency the car can have is 58.9%

4 0
2 years ago
Draw the following patterns as they would appear when viewed through a compound microscope.:
goblinko [34]
2 j x b
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3 0
2 years ago
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Two rigid rods are oriented parallel to each other and to the ground. The rods carry the same current in the same direction. The
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

220 A

Explanation:

The magnetic force on the floating rod due to the rod held close to the ground is F = BI₁L where B = magnetic field due to rod held close the ground = μ₀I₂/2πd where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m, I₂ = current in rod close to ground and d = distance between both rods = 11 mm = 0.011 m. Also, I₁ = current in floating rod and L = length of rod = 1.1 m.

So, F = BI₁L

F = (μ₀I₂/2πd)I₁L

F = μ₀I₁I₂L/2πd

Given that the current in the rods are the same, I₁ = I₂ = I

So,

F = μ₀I²L/2πd

Now, the magnetic force on the floating rod equals its weight , W = mg where m = mass of rod = 0.10kg and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

So, F = W

μ₀I²L/2πd = mg

making I subject of the formula, we have

I² = 2πdmg/μ₀L

I = √(2πdmg/μ₀L)

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

I = √(2π × 0.011 m × 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s²/[4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2 × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2.2 × 10⁻⁷ H])

I = √(0.0049 × 10⁷kgm²/s²H)

I = √(0.049 × 10⁶kgm²/s²H)

I = 0.22 × 10³ A

I = 220 A

7 0
2 years ago
Mitch throws a 100-g lump of clay at a 500-g target, which is at rest on a horizontal surface. After impact, the target, includi
max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

27.22 m/s

Explanation:

Let the speed of clay before impact is u.

the speed of clay and target is v after impact.

use conservation of momentum

momentum before impact  momentum after impact

mass of clay x u = (mass of clay + mass of target) x v

100 x u = (100 + 500) x v

u = 6 v .....(1)

distance, s = 2.1 m

μ = 0.5

final velocity is zero. use third equation of motion

v'² = v² + 2as

0 = v² - 2 x μ x g x s

v² = 2 x 0.5 x 9.8 x 2.1 = 20.58

v = 4.54 m/s

so by equation (1)

u = 6 x 4.54 = 27.22 m/s

thus, the speed of clay before impact is 27.22 m/s.

3 0
3 years ago
a moving billiard ball collides with an identical stationary billiard ball in an elastic collision. after the collision, the sec
MArishka [77]

A billiard ball collides with a stationary identical billiard ball to make it move. If the collision is perfectly elastic, the first ball comes to rest after collision.

<h3>Why does the first ball comes to rest after collision ?</h3>

Let m be the mass of the two identical balls.  

u1 = velocity before the collision of ball 1

u2 = 0 = velocity of second ball that is at rest

v1 and v2 are the velocities of the balls after the collision.

From the conservation of momentum,

∴ mu1 + mu2 = mv1 + mv2

∴ mu1 = mv1 + mv2

∴ u1 = v1 + v2

In an elastic collision, the kinetic energy of the system before and after collision remains same.

\frac{1}{2}  mu_1^2+0=\frac{1}{2}  mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2}  mv_2^2

∴  \frac{1}{2}  m(v_1+v_2 )^2=\frac{1}{2} mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2}mv_2^2

∴ \frac{1}{2} mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2} mv_2^2+mv_1 v_2=\frac{1}{2}  mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2} mv_2^2

∴ mv₁v₂ = 0

  1. It is impossible for the mass to be zero.
  2. Because the second ball moves, velocity v2 cannot be zero.
  3. As a result, the velocity of the first ball, v1, is zero, indicating that it comes to rest after collision.
<h3>What is collision ?</h3>

An elastic collision is a collision between two bodies in which the total kinetic energy of the two bodies remains constant. There is no net transfer of kinetic energy into other forms such as heat, noise, or potential energy in an ideal, fully elastic collision.

Can learn more about elastic collision from brainly.com/question/12644900

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
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