Force on the particle is defined as the application of the force field of one particle on another particle. the electrical force between q₁ and q₃ will be –1. 1 × 10¹¹ N.
<h3>What is electric force?</h3>
Force on the particle is defined as the application of the force field of one particle on another particle. It is a type of virtual force.
The electric force in the second case will be the same as in the first case. Therefore the force on the particle will be the same.
![\rm F= K\frac{q_2q_3}{r^2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Crm%20F%3D%20K%5Cfrac%7Bq_2q_3%7D%7Br%5E2%7D)
![\rm F= 9\times 10^9 \times \frac{1.6 \times 10^{-13}\times 1.6\times10^{-13}}{(0.5)^2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Crm%20F%3D%209%5Ctimes%2010%5E9%20%5Ctimes%20%5Cfrac%7B1.6%20%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-13%7D%5Ctimes%201.6%5Ctimes10%5E%7B-13%7D%7D%7B%280.5%29%5E2%7D)
![\rm F= - 1. 1 \times 10^{11 }N](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Crm%20F%3D%20%20-%201.%201%20%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B11%20%7DN)
Hence the electrical force between q₁ and q₃ will be –1. 1 × 10¹¹ N.
To learn more about the electric force refer to the link;
brainly.com/question/1076352
Answer:
The value is ![B = 0.0452 \ T](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%200.0452%20%5C%20%20T%20)
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The number of turns is N = 1000
The length is L = 50 cm = 0.50 m
The radius is r = 2.0 cm = 0.02 m
The current is I = 18.0 A
Generally the magnetic field is mathematically represented as
![B = \mu_o * \frac{N }{L} * I](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%5Cmu_o%20%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7BN%20%7D%7BL%7D%20%20%2A%20%20I)
Here
is the permeability of free space with value
![\mu_o = 4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmu_o%20%20%3D%20%204%5Cpi%20%2A%2010%5E%7B-7%7D%20N%2FA%5E2)
So
![B = 4\pi * 10^{-7} * \frac{1000}{0.50} * 18.0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%204%5Cpi%20%2A%2010%5E%7B-7%7D%20%20%2A%20%20%20%5Cfrac%7B1000%7D%7B0.50%7D%20%2A%20%2018.0)
=> ![B = 0.0452 \ T](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%200.0452%20%5C%20%20T%20)
Answer:
Explanation:
Ignoring friction, the initial kinetic energy will convert to maximum potential energy at its highest point.
PE = KE
mgh = ½mv²
h = v²/2g
h = 36.4²/ (2(9.81))
h = 67.53109...
h = 67.53 m
So the question ask to formulate an expression to represent the amount of air required to inflate the balloon from a radius of R+4 and the expression would be V=16pi/3*(3r^2+12r+16). I hope you are satisfied with my answer and feel free to ask for more if you have question and further clarifications