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diamong [38]
4 years ago
9

Where would you find an inclined plane in a fan

Physics
2 answers:
ivanzaharov [21]4 years ago
8 0
The blades that spin around in the fan, because they are flat and produce work
Licemer1 [7]4 years ago
6 0
I don't think there's none cause the blades would be wedges
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The Dinklegorb casings that are left behind at the scene of the crime

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Every gun leaves behind DG

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High- and low-pressure areas leading to air movement happen when there are differences in:
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4 A magnet can exert a force of attraction or a force of repulsion on another magnet.
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Push -repulsion

Pull - attraction

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When two magnets are brought together, a push happens when a force of repulsion is experienced where the magnets move away from each other. This means their polarity is the same and this will cause the magnet to push away from each other.

When two magnets are brought together , a pull happens when a force of attraction is experienced where the magnets move close to each other. This means their polarity is different and thus causes the magnets to pull closer to each other.

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3 years ago
A block with mass of 10 kg is on a frictionless surface. One hand on the left side of the block is pushing it to the right. A se
igomit [66]

Answer:

W_2=-12J

Explanation:

The work of force 2 will be given by the vectorial equation W_2=F_2.d. We know the value of F_1 and have information about its movement, which relates to the net force F=F_1+F_2.

About this movement we can obtain the acceleration using the equation v_f^2=v_i^2+2ad. Since it departs from rest we have a=\frac{v_f^2}{2d}.

And then using Newton's 2dn Law we can obtain the net force F=ma, thus we will have F_2=F-F_1=ma-F1=\frac{mv_f^2}{2d}-F_1

And we had the work done by force 2 as:

W_2=F_2.d=\frac{mv_f^2}{2}-F_1d

(The sign will be given algebraically since we take positive the direction to the right.)

With our values:

W_2=\frac{(10kg)(2m/s)^2}{2}-(8N)(4m)=-12J

<em>Another (shorter but maybe less intuitive way for someone who is learning) way of doing this would have been to say that the work done by both forces would be equal to the variation of kinetic energy:</em>

<em>W_1+W_2=K_f-K_i=K_f=\frac{mv_f^2}{2}</em>

<em>Which leads us to the previous equation straightforwardly.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
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