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Yanka [14]
3 years ago
6

According to the decreasing order of toughness. list the following materials (note: the steels are assumed to have no cold work

and contain equilibrium phases). Diamond, 1040 steel, 1090 steel, pure aluminum
Engineering
1 answer:
fiasKO [112]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1090 Steel >1040 Steel > Pure aluminium >Diamond.

Explanation:

Toughness:

  Toughness can be define as the are of load -deflection diagram up to fracture point.

Modulus of toughness can be defines as the area of stress-strain diagram up to fracture point.Modulus of toughness is the property of material.

So the decreasing order of toughness can be given as follows

1090 Steel >1040 Steel > Pure aluminium >Diamond.

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a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

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Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

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v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

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