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ololo11 [35]
3 years ago
14

A rectangular conducting loop of wire is approximately half-way into a magnetic field B (out of the page) and is free to move. S

uppose the magnetic field B begins to decrease rapidly in strength
Requried:
What happens to the loop?

1. The loop is pushed to the left, toward the magnetic field.
2. The loop doesn’t move.
3. The loop is pushed downward, towards the bottom of the page.
4. The loop will rotate.
5. The loop is pushed upward, towards the top of the page.
6. The loop is pushed to the right, away from the magnetic field
Physics
1 answer:
Black_prince [1.1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

. The loop is pushed to the right, away from the magnetic field

Explanation

This decrease in magnetic strength causes an opposing force that pushes the loop away from the field

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Answer:

a) p₂ = 1.88 kg*m/s

   θ = 273.4 º

b)  Kf = 37% of Ko

Explanation:

a)

  • Assuming no external forces acting during the collision, total momentum must be conserved.
  • Since momentum is a vector, their components (projected along two axes perpendicular each other, x- and y- in this case) must be conserved too.
  • The initial momenta of both particles are directed one along the x-axis, and the other one along the y-axis.
  • So for the particle moving along the positive x-axis, we can write the following equations for its initial momentum:

       p_{o1x} = 2.00 kg*m/s (1)

       p_{o1y} = 0 (2)

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        p_{o2x} = 0 (3)

        p_{o2y} = 4.00 kg*m/s (4)

  • Now, we know the value of magnitude of the final momentum p1, and the angle that makes with the positive x-axis.
  • Applying the definition of cosine and sine of an angle, we can find the x- and y- components of the final momentum of the first particle, as follows:

       p_{f1x} = 3.00 kg*m/s * cos 45 = 2.12 kg*m/s (5)

      p_{f1y} = 3.00 kg*m/s sin 45 = 2.12 kg*m/s  (6)

  • Now, the total initial momentum, along these directions, must be equal to the total final momentum.
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       p_{o1x} + p_{o2x} = p_{f1x} + p_{f2x}  (7)

  • We know from (3) that p₀₂ₓ = 0, and we have the values of p₀1ₓ from (1) and pf₁ₓ from (5) so we can solve (7) for pf₂ₓ, as follows:

       p_{f2x} = p_{o1x} - p_{f1x} = 2.00kg*m*/s - 2.12 kg*m/s = -0.12 kg*m/s (8)

  • Now, we can repeat exactly the same process for the y- axis, as follows:

       p_{o1y} + p_{o2y} = p_{f1y} + p_{f2y}  (9)

  • We know from (2) that p₀1y = 0, and we have the values of p₀₂y from (4) and pf₁y from (6) so we can solve (9) for pf₂y, as follows:

       p_{f2y} = p_{o1y} - p_{f1y} = 4.00kg*m*/s - 2.12 kg*m/s = 1.88 kg*m/s (10)

  • Since we have the x- and y- components of the final momentum of  the second particle, we can find its magnitude applying the Pythagorean Theorem, as follows:

       p_{f2} = \sqrt{p_{f2x} ^{2} + p_{f2y} ^{2} }  = \sqrt{(-0.12m/s)^{2} +(1.88m/s)^{2}} = 1.88 kg*m/s (11)

  • We can find the angle that this vector makes with the positive x- axis, applying the definition of tangent of an angle, as follows:

       tg \theta = \frac{p_{2fy} }{p_{2fx} } = \frac{1.88m/s}{(-0.12m/s} = -15.7 (12)

  • The angle that we are looking for is just the arc tg of (12) which measured in a counter-clockwise direction from the positive x- axis, is just 273.4º.

b)

  • Assuming that both masses are equal each other, we find that the momenta are proportional to the speeds, so we find that the relationship from the final kinetic energy and the initial one can be expressed as follows:

       \frac{K_{f}}{K_{o} } = \frac{v_{f1}^{2} + v_{f2} ^{2}}{v_{o1}^{2} + v_{o2} ^{2} } = \frac{12.5}{20} = 0.63 (13)

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Answer: Wavespeed (V) = Frequency F x wavelength λ (V = F λ)

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