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max2010maxim [7]
3 years ago
15

Please please help i have to turn in

Physics
1 answer:
larisa [96]3 years ago
6 0
Hi,

I've found a link that should assist you or answer your question.
http://click.dji.com/ANbvbbP7bwUWtSACp6U_?pm=link&as=0004

Have a nice day!
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How are mathematics and science related?
____ [38]
The relationship between math and science is very complicated, yet at the same time very simple. In fact all scientific equations are expressed into some form of mathematical equations. Science is a body of knowledge about the Universe. Mathematics is a language that can describe relationships and change in relationships in a rational way. Science generally uses mathematics as a tool to describe science and vice versa.
6 0
3 years ago
Which statement best describes how light behaves with liquids, gases, and solids?
juin [17]

Answer:

C number is write i think

3 0
3 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

Download docx
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> docx </span>
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> pdf </span>
5 0
3 years ago
The radii of the sprocket assemblies and the wheel of the bicycle in the figure are:
Furkat [3]
To solve this task we have to make a proportion, but firstly we have to set up all the main points : so, the distance is  s=r(B), that has its <span>r=radius,B=angle in rad velocity v=ds/dt= w(r)
Do not forget about </span> w = angular speed in rad/s and w1 = 1 revolution/sec = 2Pi (rad/s)
Now we can go to proportion
v1=v2
w1*r1 = w2r2w2 = w1 * r1/r2 = 2w1 = 4Pi (rad/s)
w2 = w3 (which is the   angular velocity of the rear wheel) &#10;
SOLVING FOR A : v3 = w3 * r3 = 4pi * 14 (inch/s) = 14.66 ft/sec
v3 = 14.66 ft/sec(1 mile/5280 ft)( 3600 sec/h)= 9.99 or something about <span>10 mph --- SOLVING FOR B.
</span>I'm sure it helps!
7 0
3 years ago
They realize there is a thin film of oil on the surface of the puddle. If the index of refraction of the oil is 1.81, and they o
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

The right solution is "165.8 nm".

Explanation:

Given:

Index of refraction,

n = 1.81

Wavelength,

λ = 600 nm

We know that,

⇒ t=\frac{\lambda}{2\times n}

By putting the values, we get

      =\frac{600}{2\times 1.81}

      =165.8 \ nm

3 0
3 years ago
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