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scoundrel [369]
3 years ago
6

How does being underwater change the ability to localize sound? why is this so?

Physics
1 answer:
Yuliya22 [10]3 years ago
3 0
Being underwater REDUCES the ability to localize sound. This is because, the resonance frequency of the external ear is reduced when the outer ear canal is fill with water. The presence of the water - air interface when one is under water and the reduction in the impedance matching ability of the middle ear also contribute to the reduction in one's ability to localize sound underwater.
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In the simplified version of Kepler's third law, P 2 = a3, the units of the orbital period P and the semimajor axis a of the ell
Orlov [11]

Answer:

The units of the orbital period P is <em>years </em> and the units of the semimajor axis a is <em>astronomical units</em>.

Explanation:

P² = a³ is the simplified version of Kepler's third law which governs the orbital motion of large bodies that orbit around a star. The orbit of each planet is an ellipse with the star at the focal point.

Therefore, if you square the year of each planet and divide it by the distance that it is from the star, you will get the same number for all the other planets.

Thus, the units of the orbital period P is <em>years </em> and the units of the semimajor axis a is <em>astronomical units</em>.

8 0
3 years ago
I really need help.
Zielflug [23.3K]
2/5 = .4
.4*100= 40%
Alex spends more time
4 0
3 years ago
Which pair does NOT have an electric force between them?.
viva [34]

Two neutral objects will not have any electric force of attraction or repulsion between them.

<h3>What is the condition for the electric force between two objects?</h3>

As we know from the electrostatics that whenever there are two charges having a positive charge on one and a negative on the other will attract each other

similarly, if they are having like charges which are both of them having positive or both of them having a negative charge then there will be a force of repulsion between them.

But if both of them or even one of them is neutral then there will not be any electric force between them.

Thus neutral objects will not have any electric force of attraction or repulsion between them.

To know more about the nature of charged particles follow

brainly.com/question/22492496

5 0
2 years ago
Which is a valid velocity reading for an object?
pashok25 [27]

Answer:

45 m / s North is a valid vector reading for an object.

Explanation:

Then velocity will be defined by x km / hr North. And, magnitude of velocity defines the speed of the body. Although this tells the speed, but there is no description for the direction, so it's not a vector reading

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3) A 30 kg child slides freely across a "Slip and Slide" on LEVEL GROUND. While the child slides, the force applied to keep them
zavuch27 [327]

Answer:

a = 0.1962 m/s^2

Explanation:

The magnitude of kinetic friction exerted is given by

F_k=\mu_kN

Where, μ_k= coefficient of kinetic friction= 0.02 and N = reaction force = mg

Where m= mass = 30 Kg and, g is acceleration due to gravity =9.81 m/s^2

F_k=0.02×30×9.81 =5.886 N

Now, since, there is no applied force this kinetic friction force will cause acceleration of the child

⇒ ma = F_k

here, a is the acceleration

⇒30a = 5.886

⇒ a = 0.1962 m/s^2

4 0
2 years ago
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