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kiruha [24]
3 years ago
6

If a bullet loses 1/nth of its velocity while passing through a plank,then no of planks required to stop the bullet is?

Physics
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
8 0
Based on the answer provided, it seems the writer wanted you to assume that the energy loss per plank is constant. This is not the same as the bullet losing <span><span>1/nth</span><span>1/nth</span></span><span> of its velocity per plank (however, the fact that the question does not mention this assumption arguably makes the question ambiguous).

</span><span>With this assumption, the energy loss becomes
</span><span>
ΔE = <span>1/2 </span>m<span>v2 </span>− <span>1/2 </span>m <span><span>(<span>v−<span>v/n</span></span>) </span><span>2
</span></span></span>
and the number of planks <span>NN</span><span> becomes
</span>
N = <span><span><span>1/2</span>m<span>v2 /</span></span><span>ΔE </span></span>= <span><span>n2/ </span><span>2n−1
</span></span>
Otherwise, if you assume that the bullet loses <span><span>1/<span>nth</span></span><span>1/<span>nth</span></span></span><span> of its velocity per plank, then the answer is </span><span><span>N=∞</span></span><span><span>

</span>
</span>
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A steel spur pinion has a module of 2 mm, 17 teeth cut on the 20° full-depth system, and a face width of 20 mm. At a speed of 16
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The value of bending stress on the pinion 35.38 M pa

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D = 2 × 17

D = 34 mm

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Form factor for the pinion gear is

Y = 0.303

Now

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Now the bending stress is given by the formula

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The spider will cross the driveway <u>25.71 in seconds</u>.

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It's a conversion problem, so, in order to solve it, we need to convert the units of the given information.

Let's convert the given speed (in cm/s) to m/s.

We know that:

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So, converting we have:

14\frac{cm}{s}*\frac{1m}{100cm}=0.14\frac{m}{s}

Then, calculating the time, we have:

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We have that the spider will cross the driveway in 25.71 seconds.

Have a nice day!

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