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Readme [11.4K]
3 years ago
9

Which physical property explains the difference in ability of copper and rubber to transmit electricity?

Physics
1 answer:
ludmilkaskok [199]3 years ago
3 0
The copper is a conductor and the rubber is an insulator. Conductors allow electricity to be transmitted freely while insulators prevent most of the current from transmitting. The outer electrons of the conductor's atoms are not very stable and are able to freely move around the material. In a material such as copper, the valence electrons are essentially free and strongly repel each other. The atoms of insulators such as rubber, hold tight to their outer electrons which prevents electricity from flowing freely through. 
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A molecule of roughly spherical shape has a mass of 6.10 × 10-25 kg and a diameter of 0.70 nm. The uncertainty in the measured p
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

\Delta v = 0.123 m/s

Explanation:

As per the law of uncertainty we know that

\Delta p \times \Delta x = \frac{h}{4\pi}

now we know that

\Delta x = 0.70 nm

m = 6.10 \times 10^{-25}

also we have

h = 6.626 \times 10^{-34} J.s

now we will have

m\Delta v \times \Delta x = \frac{h}{4\pi}

(6.10 \times 10^{-25})\Delta v \times (0.70 \times 10^{-9}) = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{4\pi}

\Delta v= 0.123 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
The voltage across the terminals of an ac power supply varies with time according to V=V0cos(t). The voltage amplitude is V0 = 4
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

A) V_rms = 29 V

B) Vav = 0 V

Explanation:

A) We are told that;

V = V_o cos ωt

voltage amplitude; V = V_o = 41.0V

Now, the formula for the root-mean-square potential difference Vrms is given as;

V_rms = V/√2

Thus plugging in relevant values, we have;

V_rms = 41/√2

V_rms = 29 V

B) Due to the fact that the voltage is sinusoidal from the given V = V_o cos ωt, we can say that the average potential difference Vav between the two terminals of the power supply would be zero.

Thus; Vav = 0 V

5 0
3 years ago
How many meters in 2.50 miles? (Use these two conversions: 1000 m = 1 km and 1.00 km = .621 mi )
Artyom0805 [142]

2.50 miles is equal to 4026 m.

<u>Explanation:</u>

As it is known that 1000 m =1 km and 1 km = 0.621 miles. So first we have to convert miles to km and then to metre as follows.

As 1 km = 0.621 miles, then

             \text { 1 miles }=\frac{1}{0.621} \mathrm{km}

So, 2.50 miles will be equal to

            2.50 \text { miles }=\frac{2.50}{0.621} \mathrm{km}=4.026 \mathrm{km}

Then, in order to get the answer in meters, we have to convert this km to meter by the conversion of 1000 m =1 km.  So,

           1 \mathrm{km}=1000 \mathrm{m}

Thereby,

          4.026 \mathrm{km}=4026 \mathrm{m}

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best describes the difference between type a and type b
Harrizon [31]
Is there supposed to be a picture? Next time try putting a picture
3 0
3 years ago
A football is thrown horizontally with an initial velocity of (16.6 m/s)x^. ignoring air resistance, the average acceleration of
Andrei [34K]

Solution:

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So we will have to use the equations twice: once for motion in the x direction and another time for the y direction.  

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Now ,

Initially, there was y velocity, however gravity began to act on the football, causing it to accelerate.  

Applying this value in equation (a)  

v_yf = at = -9.81 m/s^s * 1.75 = -17.165 m/s in the y direction  

For calculating the magnitude of the equation we have to square root the given value

         (16.6i - 17.165y)  

\\ \left | V  \right |=sqrt{16.6^{2}+17.165^{2}}\\ = \sqrt{275.56+294.637225}\\= \sqrt{570.197225}\\= 23.87[/tex]

5 0
3 years ago
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