To calculate the ideal mechanical advantage for an inclined plane, divide th length of the incline by the height of the incline.
Therefore; IMA = L/h
L= 3.0 m, while h =1.0 m
IMA = 3/1
= 3
Therefore the IMA of the ramp is 3
This means the ramp increases the force that is being exerted by 3 times.
Answer:
The time constant is 1.049.
Explanation:
Given that,
Charge 
We need to calculate the time constant
Using expression for charging in a RC circuit
![q(t)=q_{0}[1-e^{-(\dfrac{t}{RC})}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=q%28t%29%3Dq_%7B0%7D%5B1-e%5E%7B-%28%5Cdfrac%7Bt%7D%7BRC%7D%29%7D%5D)
Where,
= time constant
Put the value into the formula
![0.65q_{0}=q_{0}[1-e^{-(\dfrac{t}{RC})}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=0.65q_%7B0%7D%3Dq_%7B0%7D%5B1-e%5E%7B-%28%5Cdfrac%7Bt%7D%7BRC%7D%29%7D%5D)





Hence, The time constant is 1.049.
(a) The equation for the work done in stretching the spring from x1 to x2 is ¹/₂K₂Δx².
(b) The work done, in stretching the spring from x1 to x2 is 11.25 J.
(c) The work, necessary to stretch the spring from x = 0 to x3 is 64.28 J.
<h3>
Work done in the spring</h3>
The work done in stretching the spring is calculated as follows;
W = ¹/₂kx²
W(1 to 2) = ¹/₂K₂Δx²
W(1 to 2) = ¹/₂(250)(0.65 - 0.35)²
W(1 to 2) = 11.25 J
W(0 to 3) = ¹/₂k₁x₁² + ¹/₂k₂x₂² + ¹/₂F₃x₃
W(0 to 3) = ¹/₂(660)(0.35)² + ¹/₂(250)(0.65 - 0.35)² + ¹/₂(105)(0.89 - 0.65)
W(0 to 3) = 64.28 J
Learn more about work done here: brainly.com/question/25573309
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Answer:
Explanation:
The answer is C. Both options are correct