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padilas [110]
3 years ago
7

A recipe for a sweet tea calls for 3 cups of sugar when you place a sugar into the tea it doesn't dissolve. How could you use di

ssolve sugar into the tea?
Physics
2 answers:
Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

at the bottom

Explanation:

we can use dissolve sugar by either keep mixing the sugar with a spoon

or melt the sugar then adding it to the tea

or we can also have the tea with the sugar inside and then put it in a pan that is deep enough and start mixing the sugar

barxatty [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: You could dissolve it by heating it back up, then just cooling it down again.

Hope that helps!

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When devising a model, scientists can only use the information available during their lifetime. This means that the current mode
11111nata11111 [884]

no, it not useless. we still learn Bohr's model in HS n dats almost 200 yr old! while there may be new models, previous one is good for explaining the basics. it is also useful to learn previous model n see how our understanding improves over time.


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An elevator has a mass of 1000 Kg. What force is needed to accelerate it upward at a rate of 2 m/s/s?
zubka84 [21]

The force needed to accelerate an elevator upward at a rate of 2 m / s^{2} is 2000 N or 2 kN.

<u>Explanation: </u>

As per Newton's second law of motion, an object's acceleration is directly proportional to the external unbalanced force acting on it and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.

As the object given here is an elevator with mass 1000 kg and the acceleration is given as 2 m / s^{2}, the force needed to accelerate it can be obtained by taking the product of mass and acceleration.

                  \text {Force}=\text {Mass} \times \text {Acceleration}

                  \text { Force }=1000 \times 2=2000 \mathrm{N}=2 \text { kilo Newon }

So 2000 N or 2 kN amount of force is needed to accelerate the elevator upward at a rate of 2 m / s^{2}.

3 0
3 years ago
One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE)  = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = \sqrt{6gL}

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
Help pleasessssssssssssss
irinina [24]

Sorry I had the answer but it wont let me type numbers :(.:

5 0
2 years ago
If you were to double the separation between two slits, by what factor would the number of interference fringes within the centr
NemiM [27]

Answer The fringes become closer together as the slits are moved farther apart.

4 0
3 years ago
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