Answer:
a) Fnet = mg - Fb - Fr
b) 8.67 secs
Explanation:
mass of object = 80 kg
Buoyancy force = 1/50 * weight ( 80 * 9.81 ) = 15.696
Proportionality constant = 10 N-sec/m
<u>a) Calculate equation of motion of the object </u>
Force of resistance on object due to water = Fr ∝ V
= Fr = Kv = 10 V
Given that : Fb( due to buoyancy ) , Fr ( Force of resistance ) acts in the positive y-direction on the object while mg ( weight ) acts in the negative y - direction on the object.
Fnet = mg - Fb - Fr
∴ Equation of motion of the object ( Ma = mg - Fb - Fr )
<u>b) Calculate how long before velocity of the object hits 40 m/s</u>
Ma = mg - Fb - Fr
a = 9.81 - 0.1962 - 0.125 V = 9.6138 - 0.125 V
V = u + at ---- ( 1 )
u = 0
V = 40 m/s
a = 9.6138 - 0.125 V
back to equation 1
40 = 0 + ( 9.6138 - 0.125 (40) ) t
40 = 4.6138 t
∴ t = 40 / 4.6138 = 8.67 secs
-- The amplitude of Wave-1 is greater than the amplitude of Wave-2 ...
possibly 3 or 4 times as great.
-- The wavelength of Wave-1 is longer than the wavelength of Wave-2 ...
maybe almost twice as long.
-- The frequency of Wave-2 is greater than the frequency of Wave-1 ...
maybe almost twice as frequent.
Answer:
50 degrees
Explanation:
Usually in physics in solving such questions refractive index of air is taken as 1.00 (n=1.00) by assuming that air is a vacuum. Hence, the light ray passes from water to air at an angle of incident of 40 degrees, it means that it has angle of 50 degrees to the normal line.
A waves frequency (in Hertz) is how many crests pass by a point per second. easily confused with period, which is the amount of time it takes for a full wave to pass by a certain point