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lbvjy [14]
4 years ago
9

Boyle's Law states that when a sample of gas is compressed at a constant temperature, the pressure P and volume V satisfy the eq

uation PV = C, where C is a constant. Suppose that at a certain instant the volume is 400 cm3, the pressure is 160 kPa, and the pressure is increasing at a rate of 40 kPa/min. At what rate is the volume decreasing at this instant?
Physics
1 answer:
Zigmanuir [339]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

100 cm^3/min

Explanation:

PV = C

V = 400 cm^3

P = 160 kPa

dP/dt = + 40 kPa/min

According to the question

PV = C

Differentiate both sides with respect to time

P x dV/dt + V x dP/dt = 0

160 x dV/dt = - 400 x 40

dV/dt = - 100 cm^3/min

The volume decreases by the rate of 100 cm^3/min.

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g Two cars, car 1 and car 2 are traveling in opposite directions, car 1 with a magnitude of velocity v1=13.0 m/s and car 2 v2= 7
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

When they are approaching each other

    f_a = 2228.7 \  Hz

When they are passing  each other

    f_a = 2100Hz

 When they are retreating  from each other

     f_a =  1980.7 Hz

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The velocity of car one is  v_1 = 13.0 m/s

      The velocity of car two is  v_2 = 7.22 m/s

     The frequency of sound from car one is  f_e = 2.10 kHz

Generally the speed of sound at normal temperature is  v = 343 m/s

  Now as the cars move relative to each other doppler effect is created and this  can be represented  mathematically  as

              f_a = f_o [\frac{v \pm v_o}{v \pm v_s} ]

Where v_s is the velocity of the source of sound

            v_o is the velocity of the observer of the sound

            f_o is the actual frequence

             f_a  is the apparent frequency

Considering the case when they are approaching each other

        f_a = f_o [\frac{v +  v_o}{v -  v_s} ]

          v_o = v_2  

         v_s = v_1

         f_o = f_e

Substituting value

            f_a = 2100  [\frac{343 +  7.22}{ 343  -  13} ]

              f_a = 2228.7 \  Hz

Considering the case when they are passing  each other    

At that instant

                  v_o = v_s = 0m/s

                   f_o = f_e

               f_a = f_o [\frac{v }{v } ]

              f_a = f_o

Substituting value

             f_a = 2100Hz

Considering the case when they are retreating  from each other    

                f_a = f_o [\frac{v -  v_o}{v +   v_s} ]

          v_o = v_2  

         v_s = v_1

         f_o = f_e      

Substituting value

         f_a = 2100  [\frac{343 -  7.22}{343 +   13} ]    

          f_a =  1980.7 Hz    

7 0
4 years ago
If you wanted to
VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

Option C

Explanation:

According to the formula

  • \\ \boxed{\sf R=\rho\dfrac{\ell}{A}}

So

If we use wide wire we increase the area of cross section so resistance decreases

5 0
2 years ago
The sun’s energy is most useful to humans after it is converted to _____.
Trava [24]
The sun’s energy is most useful to humans after it is converted to chemical energy. Living organisms like humans and animals could not directly utilize the energy from the sun because of lack in organs that would allow photosynthesis. Humans and animals obtain the energy from the sun from the intake of food. These foods contain chemical energy which is obtained from the solar energy of the sun. Plants use solar energy for photosynthesis which converts the energy into chemical energy. Then, animals and humans eat the plants obtaining the chemical energy which can readily processed by the body as compared to solar energy.
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A magnetic force can act on an electron even when it A) is at rest B) moves parallel to magnetic field lines C) both of these D)
Kobotan [32]

Answer: A)

Explanation: when an electron is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force.

This force is given below as

F=qvB*sinθ

F = force experienced by charge.

q = magnitude of electronic charge

v = speed of electron

B= strength of magnetic field

θ = angle between magnetic field and velocity.

What defines the force exerted on the charge is the angle between the field and it velocity.

If magnetic field is parallel to velocity, then it means that θ=0° which means sin 0 = 0, which means

F = qvB * 0 = 0.

The charge being at rest has nothing to do with the angle between magnetic field strength and velocity.

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4 years ago
Electric Circuits Homework
nirvana33 [79]
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