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Ivahew [28]
3 years ago
9

Which one of the following concepts explains why heavy nuclei do not follow the N = Z line (or trend) in the figure? A Transmuta

tion B. Coulomb repulsion C. Particle-wave duality D. Pauli exclusion principle E. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Physics
1 answer:
NikAS [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Option B. Coulomb Repulsion

Explanation:

The reason for the heavy nucleus not being able to follow the trend or the N= Z line is because of the fact that as the atomic number, Z of an atom increases, the number of protons inside the atom also increases. Since the neutrons are charge less particles whereas the protons are positively charged particle and hence as these increases in number there is an increase in the repulsive force between the like charges, i.e., positively charged protons which is Coulomb repulsion.

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Below is a circuit schematic of sources and resistors (Figure 3). VS = 10V , R1 = 100Ω, R2 = 50Ω, R3 = 25Ω, IS = 2A. Calculate t
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

V_3\approx 4.28\,\,V

I_1=0.0572\,\,amps

I_3\approx 0.171\,\,amps

Explanation:

Notice that this is a circuit with resistors R1 and R2 in parallel, connected to resistor R3 in series. It is what is called a parallel-series combination.

So we first find the equivalent resistance for the two resistors in parallel:

\frac{1}{Re}= \frac{1}{R1}+\frac{1}{R2}\\\frac{1}{Re}= \frac{1}{100}+\frac{1}{50}\\\frac{1}{Re}= \frac{3}{100}\\Re=\frac{100}{3} \,\,\Omega

By knowing this, we can estimate the total current through the circuit,:

Vs=I\,*\,(\frac{100}{3} +25)\\10=I\,*\,\frac{175}{3} \\I=\frac{30}{175} \,amps

So approximately 0.17  amps

and therefore, we can estimate the voltage drop (V3) in R3 uisng Ohm's law:

V_3=\frac{30}{175} *\,25=\frac{30}{7} \approx 4.28\,\,V

So now we know that the potential drop across the parellel resistors must be:

10 V -  4.28 V = 5.72 V

and with this info, we can calculate the current through R1 using Ohm's Law:

I_1=\frac{V_1}{R_1} =\frac{5.72}{100} =0.0572\,\,amps

4 0
3 years ago
A particle with charge −− 5.90 nCnC is moving in a uniform magnetic field B⃗ =−(B→=−( 1.28 TT )k^k^. The magnetic force on the p
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge q=-5.90nC

Magnetic field B= -1.28T k

And the magnetic force

F =−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j

Let the velocity be V(xi + yj + zk)

Then, the force is given as

Note i×i=j×j×k×k=0

i×j=k. j×i=-k

j×k=i. k×j=-i

k×i=j. i×k=-j

The force in a magnetic field is given as

F= q(v×B)

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j =

q(xi + yj + zk) × -1.28k

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.28x i×k - 1.28y j×k - 1.28z k×k)

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( 1.28xj - 1.28y i )

−( 3.70×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.28y i + 1.28x j)

So comparing comparing coefficients

let compare x axis component

-( 3.70×10−7N )i=-1.28qy i

−3.70×10−7N = -1.28qy

y= -3.7×10^-7/-1.28q

y= -3.7×10^-7/-1.28×-5.90×10^-9)

y=-48.99m/s

y≈-49m/s

Let compare y-axisaxis

7.6×10−7N j = 1.28qx j

7.6×10−7N = 1.28qx

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.28q

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.28×-5.90×10^-9

x=-100.64m/s

a. Then, the velocity of the x component is x= -100.64m/s

b. Also, the velocity component of the y axis is y=-49m/s

c. We will compute

V•F

V=-100.64i -49j

F=−( 3.70×10−7 N )i+( 7.60×10−7 N )j

Note

i.j=j.i=0. Also i.i = j.j =1

V•F is

(-100.64i-49j)•−(3.70×10−7N)i+(7.60×10−7 N )j =

3.724×10^-5 - 3.724×10^-5=0

V•F=0

d. Angle between V and F

V•F=|V||F|Cosx

0=|V||F|Cosx

Cosx=0

x= arccos(0)

x=90°

Since the dot product is zero, from vectors , if the dot product of two vectors is zero, then the vectors are perpendicular to each other

4 0
3 years ago
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ArbitrLikvidat [17]

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7 0
3 years ago
Is 468km per minute describing speed or velocity
Luden [163]
Velocity probably well that’s what i would put
6 0
3 years ago
At a drag race, the light turns green and 0.00125 hours later, a dragster is traveling 300 miles per hour. Calculate the acceler
Talja [164]

Answer:

240000 mph² or miles/hour²

Explanation:

<em>Use the formula</em>

<h3>acceleration = change in velocity ÷ time</h3>

change in velocity = 300 mph - 0 mph (final velocity - intial velocity)

time = 0.00125 hours

<em>Substitute the values into the formula:</em>

acceleration = 300 ÷ 0.00125 = 240000 mph²

4 0
3 years ago
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