This timeline correctly shows the order of time periods in the Mesozoic Era.

Tabitha is getting ready for a family trip by getting her clothes and toys together. She suddenly gets concerned and tells her m

Kisachek [45]

The answer is Hypothesis because she can predict that she needs a bigger bag

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

$\sum F=ma$

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

$F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}$

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

$F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}$

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

$F_{c}=ma_{c}$

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

$a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r$

where

$\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}$

Where T is the period, and $\omega$ is the angular speed of the planet, so:

$a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r$

or:

$a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}$

so:

$F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

so now we can do the sum of forces:

$\sum F=ma$

$F_{g}=ma_{c}$

$G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

$G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

we can now solve this for $T^{2}$ so we get:

$T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}$

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

$T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}$

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

$M_{1}$ = mass of Star 1

$M_{2}$ = mass of Star 2

So:

$\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}$

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

$\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}$

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

$M_{2}>M_{1}$

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

6 0

2 years ago

A major feature of the solar system is that as planets get farther away from the sun they, _________ a. Are warmer b. Have fewer

defon

D.
Have a longer revolution time since they definitely do not get warmer, They do not have fewer moons (Jupiter has about 100 and earth has 1) they are not smaller in diameter (Earth v Jupiter)

6 0

2 years ago

Light with an intensity of 1 kW/m2 falls normally on a surface and is completely absorbed. The radiation pressure is

kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

The radiation pressure of the light is 3.33 x 10⁻⁶ Pa.

Explanation:

Given;

intensity of light, I = 1 kW/m²

The radiation pressure of light is given as;

$Radiation \ Pressure = \frac{Flux \ density}{Speed \ of \ light}$

I kW = 1000 J/s

The energy flux density = 1000 J/m².s

The speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

Thus, the radiation pressure of the light is calculated as;

$Radiation \ pressure = \frac{1000}{3*10^{8}} \\\\Radiation \ pressure =3.33*10^{-6} \ Pa$

Therefore, the radiation pressure of the light is 3.33 x 10⁻⁶ Pa.

6 0

3 years ago

While driving on a highway, your HMMWV starts to pull to one side. You stop and check your tires – one tire is going flat. There

MrRissso [65]

Answer:

30 miles people hour (mph)

Explanation:

The maximum speed for one flat tyre is 30mph, for both tyres it is 20 mph and for two tyres on the same side it is 30mph. When a tyre is punctured driving at high speed should be avoided and not too long distance should be covered to avoid further accident and for the safety of other vehicles. Speed limit and distance for flat tires should be strictly followed.

3 0

3 years ago