3 years ago

Why is the coefficient of friction independent of the mass?

1 answer:

3 0

Because the coefficient of friction depends on the surface

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lisov135 [29]

You asked the question twice I answered it on the last one

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iren [92.7K]

I think centripetal force ☺

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Nikolay [14]

It's momentum is twice as much.

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Rufina [12.5K]

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow Acceleration=\dfrac{v-u}{t}$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow Acceleration=\dfrac{20-12}{45}$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow Acceleration=\dfrac{8}{45}$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow Acceleration=0.1m/s^2$

Now

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow v^2-u^2=2as$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow (20)^2-12^2=2(0.1)s$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow 400-144=0.2s$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow 256=0.2s$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow s=\dfrac{256}{0.2}$

$\\ \rm\hookrightarrow s=1280m$

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3 years ago

postnew [5]

We can conclude that it is a longitudinal wave because the wave is traveling through a medium displacing particles<span>
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3 years ago