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kvasek [131]
3 years ago
7

This is a model of a Neon atom. How likely is it that this atom would want to bond with another atom? Neon atom Question 5 optio

ns:
A.This atom is very likely to bond with another atom.
B. This atom is only slightly likely to bond with another atom
C.This atom is not likely at all to bond with another atom.
Physics
1 answer:
juin [17]3 years ago
3 0
If this is just a normal model of a Neon atom in which it has 2 electrons in the first shell and 8 in the second, then this atom is not likely at all to bond with another atom because it has 8 electrons in its outermost or valence shell. Because 8 is 8, Neon doesn't need to combine with another element. 
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Part 1. Define the following terminologies
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

1: Elements are substances that cannot be broken down into more substances.

2: Compounds are a group of elements in a specific ratio.

3: A metalloid is between a metal and a non-metal.

4: A physical property is a property you can see or touch.

5: A chemical property is a property seen in chemical reactions.

6: Alloys are the combination of two or more metals to make a better material.

7: An insulator doesn't let heat and sound escape.

8: Corrosion is when a metal reacts to oxygen, water, or sulfur.

9: Rust is when a metal is exposed to oxygen

Explanation:

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2 years ago
Suppose a bicycle was coasting on a level surface, and there was no friction. What would happen to the bicycle?
balandron [24]
It will be ccccccccccccccccccccccccccc
3 0
3 years ago
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A loop of wire is carrying current of 2 A . The radius of the loop is 0.4 m. What is the magnetic field at a distance 0.09 m alo
HACTEHA [7]

Answer:

B=2.91\ \mu T

Explanation:

Given that,

The current in the loop, I = 2 A

The radius of the loop, r = 0.4 m

We need to find the magnetic field at a distance 0.09 m along the axis and above the center of the loop. The formula for the magnetic field at some distance is given as follows :

B=\dfrac{\mu_o}{4\pi }\dfrac{2\pi r^2 I}{(r^2+d^2)^{3/2}}

Put all the values,

B=10^{-7}\times \dfrac{2\pi \times 0.4^2 \times 2}{(0.4^2+0.09^2)^{3/2}}\\\\=2.91\times 10^{-6}\ T\\\\or\\\\B=2.91\ \mu T

So, the required magnetic field is equal to 2.91\ \mu T.

3 0
2 years ago
A projectile of mass m is launched with an initial velocity vector v i making an angle θ with the horizontal as shown below. The
sergeinik [125]
Angular momentum is given by the length of the arm to the object, multiplied by the momentum of the object, times the cosine of the angle that the momentum vector makes with the arm. From your illustration, that will be: 
<span>L = R * m * vi * cos(90 - theta) </span>

<span>cos(90 - theta) is just sin(theta) </span>
<span>and R is the distance the projectile traveled, which is vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>so, we have: L = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) * m * vi * sin(theta) / g </span>

<span>We can combine the two vi terms and get: </span>

<span>L = vi^3 * m * sin(theta) * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>What's interesting is that angular momentum varies with the *cube* of the initial velocity. This is because, not only does increased velocity increase the translational momentum of the projectile, but it increase the *moment arm*, too. Also note that there might be a trig identity which lets you combine the two sin() terms, but nothing jumps out at me right at the moment. </span>

<span>Now, for the first part... </span>

<span>There are a few ways to attack this. Basically, you have to find the angle from the origin to the apogee (highest point) in the arc. Once we have that, we'll know what angle the momentum vector makes with the moment-arm because, at the apogee, we know that all of the motion is *horizontal*. </span>

<span>Okay, so let's get back to what we know: </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>where d is the distance (length to the arm), m is mass, v is velocity, and phi is the angle the velocity vector makes with the arm. Let's take these one by one... </span>

<span>m is still m. </span>
<span>v is going to be the *hoizontal* component of the initial velocity (all the vertical component got eliminated by the acceleration of gravity). So, v = vi * cos(theta) </span>
<span>d is going to be half of our distance R in part two (because, ignoring friction, the path of the projectile is a perfect parabola). So, d = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g </span>

<span>That leaves us with phi, the angle the horizontal velocity vector makes with the moment arm. To find *that*, we need to know what the angle from the origin to the apogee is. We can find *that* by taking the arc-tangent of the slope, if we know that. Well, we know the "run" part of the slope (it's our "d" term), but not the rise. </span>

<span>The easy way to get the rise is by using conservation of energy. At the apogee, all of the *vertical* kinetic energy at the time of launch (1/2 * m * (vi * sin(theta))^2 ) has been turned into gravitational potential energy ( m * g * h ). Setting these equal, diving out the "m" and dividing "g" to the other side, we get: </span>

<span>h = 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g </span>

<span>So, there's the rise. So, our *slope* is rise/run, so </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g ] / [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g ] </span>

<span>The "g"s cancel. Astoundingly the "vi"s cancel, too. So, we get: </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ sin(2*theta) ] </span>

<span>(It's not too alarming that slope-at-apogee doesn't depend upon vi, since that only determines the "magnitude" of the arc, but not it's shape. Whether the overall flight of this thing is an inch or a mile, the arc "looks" the same). </span>

<span>Okay, so... using our double-angle trig identities, we know that sin(2*theta) = 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta), so... </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta) ] = tan(theta)/4 </span>

<span>Okay, so the *angle* (which I'll call "alpha") that this slope makes with the x-axis is just: arctan(slope), so... </span>

<span>alpha = arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Alright... last bit. We need "phi", the angle the (now-horizontal) momentum vector makes with that slope. Draw it on paper and you'll see that phi = 180 - alpha </span>

<span>so, phi = 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Now, we go back to our original formula and plug it ALL in... </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>becomes... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>

<span>Now, cos(180 - something) = cos(something), so we can simplify a little bit... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>
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The gravitional energy of an object is always measured realative to the ?
zaharov [31]
I would say that the answer would be MASS.
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