Here,
height at failure, h1 = 525 m,
upward acceleration, a = 2.25 m/s^2,
velocity = v m/s,
<span>
SO, </span>
<span>
v^2 = 2*a*h = 2*2.25*525 = 2362.5 </span>
Now, acceleration, g = 9.8 m/s^2,
<span>
SO, </span>
<span>
heigt, h1 = v^2/2g = 2362.5 / 2*9.8 = 120.54 meters </span>
Hence,
<span>
a) </span>
Total height = 525+120.54 = 645.54 meters
b)
<span>time, for h1, t = v/g = sqrt(2362.5)/9.8 = 4.96 sec
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Answer:
The formula comes from Lorentz force law which includes both the electric and magnetic field. If the electric field is zero, the force law for just the magnetic field is <u>F=q(ν×B</u>) . Here, F is force and is a vector because the force acts in a direction. q is the charge of the particle. v is velocity and is a vector because the particle is moving in some direction. B is the magnetic flux density.
We can derive an expression for the magnetic force on a current by taking a sum of the magnetic forces on individual charges. (The forces add because they are in the same direction.) The force on an individual charge moving at the drift velocity vd. Since the magnitude of B is constant at every line element of the loop (circle) and it dot product with the line element is B dl everywhere, therefore
∮B dl=μ0 I
B ∮dl=μ0 I
B 2πr=μ0 I
B=μ02πr Id=μ0/4π I dl×rr3
Since, r can be written as r=(rcosθ,rsinθ,z) and dl as dl=(dl,0,0) And now, if we take the cross product we would get
dl×r=−z dlj^+rsinθk^
and therefore the magnitude of dB is equal to
dB=μ0/4π I |dl×r|/r3=μ0/4π I z2+r2sin2θ−−−−−−−−−−√dl/r3
Thus, magnetic field is depending on r,θ,z.
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The bearing could be the below:
oppositely charged, same initial direction
same charge, opposite initial direction
You can decide by utilizing your correct hand and put your fingers toward the attractive field (North to South). Thumb toward present or charged molecule. The course of your palm will demonstrate the heading of compelling set on a decidedly charged molecule and the bearing of the back of your hand will demonstrate the bearing of a contrarily charged molecule.
As per Bernuolli's Theorem total energy per unit mass is given as
now from above equation
now by above equation
Part B)
Now energy per unit weight
Answer:
Explanation:
The bike's acceleration can be found by using the following suvat equation:
where
v is the final velocity of the bike
u is the initial velocity
a is the acceleration
s is the distance covered
For the bike in the problem,
u = 0
v = 7 m/s
d = 40 m
Solving the equation for a, we find the acceleration:
