So mathematical harmonics are based around a divergent set of fractions. Sigma(1/n)
with the 1st harmonic being... well 1, or 1 full wavelength.The second harmonic is exactly 1/2 the wavelength of the 1st with the third being 1/3 the wavelength. As Wavelengths go down, frequencies go up in a perfect ratio.
Second Harmonic has double the Frequency of the 1st or base note. Third Harmonic is triple and so on.
So the Harmonic set of 375 is.
1. 375
2. 375×2=750
3. 375×3= 1125
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.
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etc (: I hope this helps.
Answer:
Ф = 2.179 eV
Explanation:
This exercise has electrons ejected from a metal, which is why it is an exercise on the photoelectric effect, which is explained assuming the existence of energy quanta called photons that behave like particles.
E = K + Ф
the energy of the photons is given by the Planck relation
E = h f
we substitute
h f = K + Ф
Ф= hf - K
the speed of light is related to wavelength and frequency
c = λ f
f = c /λ
Φ =
let's reduce the energy to the SI system
K = 0.890 eV (1.6 10⁻¹⁹ J / 1eV) = 1.424 10⁻¹⁹ J
calculate
Ф = 6.63 10⁻³⁴ 3 10⁸/405 10⁻⁹ -1.424 10⁻¹⁹
Ф = 4.911 10⁻¹⁹ - 1.424 10⁻¹⁹
Ф = 3.4571 10⁻¹⁹ J
we reduce to eV
Ф = 3.4871 10⁻¹⁹ J (1 eV / 1.6 10⁻¹⁹ J)
Ф = 2.179 eV
The answer is d. Wavelength
The question is incomplete but still I answer to assume your thinking.
The picture is attached below!.
Here,
F is the force with which you pull up the incline.
N is the normal force.
w is the weight acting downward.
Axis are mentioned in the attached picture.
Concept:You can see there is no movement of object in the y-direction that means acceleration is zero in y-direction, sum of all the forces in y-direction equal to zero.
According to newton second law,
<span>∑ F = ma
</span>As, acceleration is zero in y-direction, so right hand side is zero in the above equation.
<span>∑ F = 0</span>
N-wcosθ=0
N= m*g*cos25°
N= m*(9.8)*(0.9063)
N= 8.8817*mBy putting the value of mass(m)(not given in the question) you will get the answer.
Hopefully, this is the answer of your question.
Answer:
The appropriate response is "
". A further explanation is described below.
Explanation:
The torque (
) produced by the force on the dam will be:
⇒ 
On applying integration both sides, we get
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ ![=pgL[\frac{h^3}{2} -\frac{h^3}{3} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3DpgL%5B%5Cfrac%7Bh%5E3%7D%7B2%7D%20-%5Cfrac%7Bh%5E3%7D%7B3%7D%20%5D)
⇒ 