All categories

3 years ago

Why are the arms of spiral galaxies typically blue in color?

Physics

1 answer:

Rus_ich [418]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Stars are forming in the spiral arms so there are high mass, hot, blue stars in the arms.

Explanation:

You might be interested in

Scientific evidence documents the pattern of evolution. The evidence exists in a variety of categories. What are these categorie

Sauron [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Scientific evidence takes note of the pattern of evolution. The evidence exists in a variety of categories, including direct observation of evolutionary change, the fossil record, homology, and biogeography.

Examples of the categories with their respective examples are:

Direct observation of evolutionary change: Development of drug resistant bacteria

Fossil record: Discovery of transitional forms of horses, Discovery of shells of extinct species

Homology: Similarities in mammalian forelimbs, Same genetic code in fireflies and tobacco plants, Vestigial pelvis in right whales

Biogeography: Similarity of endemic island species to nearby mainland species, The high concentration of marsupial species in Australia

3 0

2 years ago

On a planet where g = 10.0 m/s2 and air resistance is negligible, a sled is at rest on a rough inclined hill rising at 30°. The

Cloud [144]

Answer:

Explanation:

a is the acceleration

μ is the coefficient of friction

Acceleration of the object is given by

$a = g (\sin \theta -\mu \cos \theta)\\\\=10( \sin 30 - 0.4 \cos 30)\\\\=10(0.5-0.3464)\\\\=1.54m/s^2$

Velocity at the bottom

$v^2=u^2+2as\\\\u=0\\\\v^2=2as\\\\=2*1.54*8\\\\=24.576\\\\v=4.96m/s$

after travelling 4m , its velocity becomes 0

$a=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2s}$

$a=\frac{0-u^2}{2s}$

$a=\frac{-(-4.96)^2}{2*4} \\\\=-3.075m/s^2$

Coefficient of kinetic friction

μ = F/N

$=\frac{ma}{mg} \\\\=\frac{3.075}{10} \\\\=0.31$

Therefore, the Coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.31

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

if a ball is thrown straight up into the air with an initial velocity of 8080 ft/s, its height in feet after tt second is given

yanalaym [24]

The average velocity for the time period beginning when t=1 and lasting

(i) 0.01 seconds = 63.84 ft/s

(ii) 0.001 seconds = 63.984 ft/s

Given that a ball is thrown with an initial velocity = 80 ft/s

Let 'y' be the height in feet after 't' seconds.

Given, $y=80t-16t^2$ gives the height in 't' seconds.

Average velocity = Rate of change of distance

= Change in distance/Change in time.

The initial time can be taken as 0 s.

When t =1 s, y = 80 - 16 = 64 ft

(1) t = 0.01 s

y = 80 x 0.01 - 16 x 0.01 x 0.01 = 0.7984 ft

Average velocity = (64 - 0.7984) / (1 -0.01) = 63.84 ft/s

(2) t = 0.001 s

y = 80 x 0.001 - 16 x 0.001 x 0.001 = 0.079984 ft

Average velocity = (64 - 0.079984) / (1 -0.001) = 63.984 ft/s

The question is incomplete. Find out the complete question below:

If a ball is thrown straight up into the air with an initial velocity of 80 ft/s, it height in feet after t second is given by $y=80t-16t^2$ .Find the average velocity for the time period beginning when t=1 and lasting

(i) 0.01 seconds

(ii) 0.001 seconds

Learn more about average velocity at brainly.com/question/6504879

#SPJ4

7 0

1 year ago

What is a change in the speed of an object called?

mina [271]

Acceleration........................................

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .