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3 years ago

What is a planet’s period of rotation?

Physics

2 answers:

Annette [7]3 years ago

5 0

The answer is the letter "C" ( I have honors science I am good at this type of stuff )

Hope I helped :) ( ask me for help when u need it :)

stepan [7]3 years ago

3 0

One complete spin on its axis C:

Note: although it's usually a single number for planets, on places like the sun where some parts turn quicker than others, different parts have different rotation periods.

You might be interested in

A force of 40 N accelerates a 5 block at 6 m/s ^ 2 along a horizontal surface a. What would the block's acceleration be if the s

Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

a = 8 m/s^2, Ffriction = 10 N, μk = 0.205

Explanation:

a. Force = Mass*Acceleration,

(since you didn't add the units..."5 block"....for the mass, I will assume it to be in kg, per SI units)

40 N = 5 kg*acceleration,

a = 40/5 = 8 m/s^2

b. As you know newtons second law (F=m*a) is actually in the form Fnet = m*a. Which means that if the friction force comes into play, it would be Fapplied - Ffriction = m*a.

Fapplied - Ffriction = m*a,

40 - Ffriction = 5*6,

40 - Ffriction = 30,

Ffriction = 40 - 30 = 10 N

c. The coefficient of kinetic friction is calculated by the formula "Ffriction = μk*Fnormal".

10 = μk*Fnormal (Fnormal = m*g = 5*9.8)

10 = μk*49,

μk=10/49 ≈ 0.205

7 0

3 years ago

HELP PLEASE 20 ;OINTS

77julia77 [94]

I’m pretty sure it’s C.

7 0

2 years ago

A particular circuit toolbox contains only 80 Ω resistors and switches, which can be open or closed. Construct a circuit, fillin

Strike441 [17]

Answer:

Here we need to make parallel connection of two 80 ohm resistors to achieve 40 ohm net resistance.

Explanation:

As we know that the resistances in series add up directly and here we are given with only the resistors of 80 Ω.

So when we connect two resistors of 80 ohm in parallel we get the resultant of 40 ohm.

Mathematically:

$\frac{1}{R_p} =\frac{1}{R} +\frac{1}{R}$

$\frac{1}{40} =\frac{1}{R} +\frac{1}{R}$

$\frac{1}{40} =\frac{2}{R}$

$R=80\Omega$ gives us the only combination of two resistors in parallel.

3 0

2 years ago

7.22 Ignoring reflection at the air–water boundary, if the amplitude of a 1 GHz incident wave in air is 20 V/m at the water surf

Serga [27]

Answer:

z = 0.8 (approx)

Explanation:

given,

Amplitude of 1 GHz incident wave in air = 20 V/m

Water has,

μr = 1

at 1 GHz, r = 80 and σ = 1 S/m.

depth of water when amplitude is down to 1 μV/m

Intrinsic impedance of air = 120 π Ω

Intrinsic impedance of water = $\dfrac{120\pi}{\epsilon_r}$

Using equation to solve the problem

$E(z) = E_0 e^{-\alpha\ z}$

E(z) is the amplitude under water at z depth

E_o is the amplitude of wave on the surface of water

z is the depth under water

$\alpha = \dfrac{\sigma}{2}\sqrt{\dfrac{(120\pi)^2}{\Epsilon_r}}$

$\alpha = \dfrac{1}{2}\sqrt{\dfrac{(120\pi)^2}{80}}$

$\alpha =21.07\ Np/m$

now ,

$1 \times 10^{-6} = 20 e^{-21.07\times z}$

$e^{21.07\times z}= 20\times 10^{6}$

taking ln both side

21.07 x z = 16.81

z = 0.797

z = 0.8 (approx)

5 0

3 years ago

Ubes have sides of equal lengths. What is the fastest way to measure the volume of a cube-shaped table?

Kryger [21]

The quickest technique to calculate the volume of a cube-shaped table is to use a ruler to measure one side, then multiply that figure by three. Option B is correct.

<h3 /><h3>How do you calculate the volume of a cube?</h3>

Assume the side length of the cube under consideration is L units. The volume of the cube is then equal to L³ cubic units.

The volume of a cube is;

V = L³

Ubes have equal-length sides. The quickest technique to calculate the volume of a cube-shaped table is to use a ruler to measure one side, then multiply that figure by three.

Hence option B is correct.

To learn more about the volume of a cube refer

brainly.com/question/26136041

#SPJ1

7 0

1 year ago