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inna [77]
4 years ago
11

A minor road intersects a major 4-lane divided road with a design speed of 55mph and a median width of 8 feet. The intersection

is controlled with a stop sign on the minor road. If the design vehicle is a passenger car, determine the minimum sight distance required on the major road that will allow a stopped vehicle on the minor road to safely turn left if the approach grade on the minor road is 3%.

Engineering
1 answer:
Vedmedyk [2.9K]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

stopping sight diatnce is =158 meters

Explanation:

The Design Speed =55 MPH(Miles per Hour)

1 miles per hour =0.447 meter pe second

then 55MPH=55*0.447=24.58 meter per second

Consider recation time =2.5 second

Consider Co efficinet friction is 0.35

As per the Stopping sight distance based on the Breaking distance+ Lag distance

SSD=Vt+(V^2/(2gf))

SSD=24.58+(24.58^2/(2*9.81*0.35))

The total stopping sight distance is =150 meters

if we consider the Approaching garde on the minor road is 3%

SSD=Vt+(V^2/(2g(f-n/100))

SSD=24.58+(24.58^2/(2*9.81*(0.35-3/100))

then stopping sight diatnce is =158 meters

See attachment for workings

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Helga [31]

False

Explanation:

Residency is a term in medicine that means a three plus training program in medical specialty. An architect is a program in the engineering field that requires an internship after graduation to equip a graduate architect with field experience that involve working close with experienced professionals in the same field. During this 12 month internship period, a graduate is trained on how to perform the real job through exposure to projects in that field.

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4 0
3 years ago
Waste that is generated by a business is called a _____________.
matrenka [14]
It is called a ‘Waste Stream’

This should be right! Hope this helps, have a great day!
8 0
3 years ago
Calculate the angle of banking on a bend of 100m radius so that vehicles can travel round the bend at 50km/hr without side thrus
saw5 [17]

Answer:

11.125°

Explanation:

Given:

Radius of bend, R = 100 m

Speed around the bend = 50 Km/hr = \frac{5}{18}\times50 = 13.89 m/s

Now,

We have the relation

\tan\theta=\frac{v^2}{gR}

where,

θ = angle of banking

g is the acceleration due to gravity

on substituting the respective values, we get

\tan\theta=\frac{13.89^2}{9.81\times100}

or

\tan\theta=0.1966

or

θ = 11.125°

3 0
3 years ago
Assume that in orthogonal cutting the rake angle is 15° and the coefficient of friction is 0.15. a. Determine the percentage cha
alexira [117]

Answer:

Δr=20.45 %

Explanation:

Given that

Rake angle α =  15°

coefficient of friction ,μ = 0.15

The friction angle β

tanβ = μ

tanβ = 0.15

β=8.83°

2φ +  β - α  = 90°

φ=Shear angle

2φ + 8.833° - 15° = 90°

φ = 48.08°

Chip thickness r given as

r=\dfrac{tan\phi}{cos\alpha +sin\alpha\ tan\phi}

r=\dfrac{tan48.08^{\circ}}{cos15^{\circ} +sin15^{\circ}\ tan48.08^{\circ}}

r=0.88

New coefficient of friction ,μ'  = 0.3

tanβ' = μ'

tanβ' = 0.3

β'=16.69°

2φ' +  β' - α  = 90°

φ'=Shear angle

2φ' + 16.69° - 25° = 90°

φ' = 49.15°

Chip thickness r' given as

r'=\dfrac{tan\phi'}{cos\alpha +sin\alpha\ tan\phi'}

r'=\dfrac{tan44.15^{\circ}}{cos49.15^{\circ} +sin49.15^{\circ}\ tan44.15^{\circ}}

r'=0.70

Percentage change

\Delta r=\dfrac{r-r'}{r}\times 100

\Delta r=\dfrac{0.88-0.70}{0.88}\times 100

Δr=20.45 %

8 0
3 years ago
The pressure in a water line is 1500 kPa. What is the line pressure in (a) lb/ft2units and (b) lbf/in2(psi) units?
n200080 [17]

Answer:

Part A:

1500\ KPa= 31328.145 \frac{lb}{ft^2}

Part B:

1500 KPa=217.55656 \frac{lb}{in^2}(Psi)

Explanation:

Part A:

Line Pressure is 1500 KPa

We need a conversion factor which converts KPa to lb/ft^2.

20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2}= 1\ KPa

In order to convert 1500 KPa to lb/ft^2, we proceed as:

1\ KPa=20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2} \\1500\ KPa= 1500 KPa*20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2.KPa}\\1500\ KPa= 31328.145 \frac{lb}{ft^2}

1500 KPa is 31328.145 lb/ft^2

Part B:

We will use the same procedure we did in Part A:

1 ft= 12 in

(1\ ft)^2=(12\ in)^2\\1 ft^2=144 in^2

Converting 1500 KPa\  into\  \frac{lb}{in^2}

1500\ KPa= 1500 KPa*20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2.KPa} * \frac{ft^2}{144\ in^2}

1500 KPa=217.55656 \frac{lb}{in^2}(Psi)

1500 KPa is 217.55656 lb/in^2 (psi)

3 0
3 years ago
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