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faust18 [17]
3 years ago
13

Steam at 1 MPa, 300 C flows through a 30 cm diameter pipe with an average velocity of 10 m/s. The mass flow rate of this steam i

s: (d) 3.78 kg/s (a) 0.731 kg/s(b) 2.74 kg/s (c) 3.18 kg/s
Engineering
1 answer:
stealth61 [152]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\dot m = 2.74 kg/s

Explanation:

given data:

pressure 1 MPa

diameter of pipe  =  30 cm

average velocity = 10 m/s

area of pipe= \frac[\pi}{4}d^2

                 = \frac{\pi}{4} 0.3^2

A = 0.070 m2

WE KNOW THAT mass flow rate is given as

\dot m = \rho A v

for pressure 1 MPa, the density of steam is = 4.068 kg/m3

therefore we have

\dot m = 4.068 * 0.070* 10

\dot m = 2.74 kg/s

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It is desired to produce and aligned carbon fiber-epoxy matrix composite having a longitudinal tensile strength of 630 MPa. Calc
ratelena [41]

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Given that:

Diameter (D) = 0.03 mm = 0.00003 m, length (L) = 2.4 mm = 0.0024 m, longitudinal tensile strength (\sigma_{cd})=630\ MPa = 630*10^6\ Pa, Fracture strength

(\sigma_f)=5100\ MPa=5100*10^6\ Pa,fiber-matrix\ stres(\sigma_m)=17.5\ MPa=17.5*10^6\ Pa,matrix\ strength=\tau_c=17\ MPa=17 *10^6\ Pa

a) The critical length (L_c) is given by:

L_c=\sigma_f*(\frac{D}{2*\tau_c} )=5100*10^6*\frac{0.00003}{2*17*10^6}=0.0045\ m=4.5\ mm

The critical length (4.5 mm) is greater than the given length, hence th composite can be produced.

b) The volume fraction (Vf) is gotten from the formula:

\sigma_{cd}=\frac{L*\tau_c}{D}*V_f+\sigma_m(1-V_f)\\\\V_f=\frac{\sigma_{cd}-\sigma_{m}}{\frac{L*\tau_c}{D}-\sigma_{m}}  \\\\Substituting:\\\\V_f=\frac{630*10^6-17.5*10^6}{\frac{0.0024*17*10^6}{0.00003} -17.5*10^6} \\\\V_f=0.456

6 0
3 years ago
All the fnaf UNC charecters
astra-53 [7]

Answer:

T.Freddy.

T.Bonnie.

T.Chica.

G.Freddy.

N. Freddy.

F.Foxy.

Mr.Hippo.

R.Freddy.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
To find the reactance XLXLX_L of an inductor, imagine that a current I(t)=I0sin(ωt)I(t)=I0sin⁡(ωt) , is flowing through the indu
Sophie [7]

Answer:

V(t) = XLI₀sin(π/2 - ωt)

Explanation:

According to Maxwell's equation which is expressed as;

V(t) = dФ/dt ........(1)

Magnetic flux Ф can also be expressed as;

Ф = LI(t)

Where

L = inductance of the inductor

I = current in Ampere

We can therefore Express Maxwell equation as:

V(t) = dLI(t)/dt ....... (2)

Since the inductance is constant then voltage remains

V(t) = LdI(t)/dt

In an AC circuit, the current is time varying and it is given in the form of

I(t) = I₀sin(ωt)

Substitutes the current I(t) into equation (2)

Then the voltage across inductor will be expressed as

V(t) = Ld(I₀sin(ωt))/dt

V(t) = LI₀ωcos(ωt)

Where cos(ωt) = sin(π/2 - ωt)

Then

V(t) = ωLI₀sin(π/2 - ωt) .....(3)

Because the voltage and current are out of phase with the phase difference of π/2 or 90°

The inductive reactance XL = ωL

Substitute ωL for XL in equation (3)

Therefore, the voltage across inductor is can be expressed as;

V(t) = XLI₀sin(π/2 - ωt)

3 0
3 years ago
There are two machines for sale that you are considering purchasing for your sawmill to produce hardwood flooring. You want to f
devlian [24]

Answer:

Machine 2 has a higher process capability index, it would be best considered for purchase.

Explanation:

Process capability index: Cpk= Min [(mean-L spec)/3sd; (U spec-mean)/3sd]

For machine 1, mean= 48mm and L spec= 46 and U spec= 50, Standard deviation sd= 0.7

Cpk= [0.952;0.952]= 0.952

For machine 2, mean= 47 and L spec= 46 and U spec= 50, Standard deviation sd= 0.3

Cpk= [1.111;3.333]= 1.111

It is clearly observed from the calculations above that the Cpk value of machine 2 is higher than that of machine 1.

Since machine 2 has a higher process capability index, it would be best considered for purchase.

4 0
3 years ago
how is friction losses in pipes reduced? a. decrease the pipe diameter b. increase the length of the pipes. c. decrease the leng
Citrus2011 [14]

Friction losses in pipes can be reduced by decreasing the length of the pipes, reducing the surface roughness of the pipes, and increasing the pipe diameter. Thus, options (c),(e), and (f) hold correct answers.

Friction loss is a measure of the amount of energy a piping system loses because flowing fluids meet resistance. As fluids flow through the pipes, they carry energy with them. Unfortunately, whenever there is resistance to the flow rate, it diverts fluids, and energy escapes. These opposing forces result in friction loss in pipes.

Friction loss in pipes can decrease the efficiency of the functions of pipes. These are a few ways by which friction loss in pipes can be reduced and the efficiency of the piping system can be boosted:

  • <u><em>Decrease the length of the pipes</em></u>: By decreasing pipe lengths and avoiding the use of sharp turns, fittings, and tees, whenever possible result in a more natural path for fluids to flow.
  • <u><em>Reduce the surface roughness of the pipes</em></u>:  By reducing the interior surface roughness of pipes, a smooth and clearer path is provided for liquids to flow.
  • <u><em>Increase the pipe diameter: </em></u>By widening the diameters of pipes, it is ensured that fluids squeeze through pipes easily.

You can learn more about friction losses at

brainly.com/question/13348561

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
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