Answer:
e see that the distances are different, the only way that the two beams of light approach simultaneously is that event 2 (farthest) occurs first than event 1
Explanation:
This is an ejercise in special relativity, where the speed of light is constant.
Let's carefully analyze the approach, we see the two events at the same time.
The closest event time is
c = (x₁-300) / t
t = (x₁-300) / c
The time for the other event is
t = (x₂- 600) / c
since they tell us that we see the events simultaneously, we can equalize
(x₁ -300) / c = (x₂ -600) / c
x₁ = x₂ - 300
We see that the distances are different, the only way that the two beams of light approach simultaneously is that event 2 (farthest) occurs first than event 1
1. Is A. at the poles because thats where the magnetic field is going out then coming back into the earth to produce the magnetic field.
2. Again its A. because the compass needle is attracted to " north " which is magnetic south. It does this because opposites attract.
3. This one would be B. Because if the magnets were being repelled the magnetic field lines would look like there was a line that the field hit and bounced off of it.
4. This answer is A. the magnetite helps them migrate so they know which way is north and which way is south.
5. This answer is A. Because without the domains there wouldn't be poles on the magnetic object. <span />
Complete Question
The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image
Answer:
a E =
b E =
c E = 0 N/C
d 
e 
f V = 
g 
h 
i 
Explanation:
From the question we are given that
The first charge 
The second charge 
The first radius 
The second radius 

And ![Potential \ Difference = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1 }{r}+\frac{q_2}{R_2} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Potential%20%5C%20Difference%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20%5Cepsilon_0%7D%20%20%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%20%7D%7Br%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%7D%7BR_2%7D%20%5D)
The objective is to obtain the the magnitude of electric for different cases
And the potential difference for other cases
Considering a
r = 4.00 m


Considering b

This implies that the electric field would be

This because it the electric filed of the charge which is below it in distance that it would feel

= 
Considering c
r = 0.200 m
=> 
The electric field = 0
This is because the both charge are above it in terms of distance so it wont feel the effect of their electric field
Considering d
r = 4.00 m
=> 
Now the potential difference is

This so because the distance between the charge we are considering is further than the two charges given
Considering e
r = 1.00 m 
![V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{1.00} \frac{1.00*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 26.79 *10^3 V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20%5Cepsilon_0%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%7D%7Br%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%7D%7BR_2%7D%20%20%5D%20%3D%208.99%2A10%5E9%20%2A%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2.00%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B1.00%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B1.00%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B1.00%7D%20%5D%20%3D%2026.79%20%2A10%5E3%20V)
Considering f

![V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.700} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 34.67 *10^3 V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20%5Cepsilon_0%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%7D%7Br%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%7D%7BR_2%7D%20%20%5D%20%3D%208.99%2A10%5E9%20%2A%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2.00%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B0.700%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B1.0%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B1.00%7D%20%5D%20%3D%2034.67%20%2A10%5E3%20V)
Considering g

![V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20%5Cepsilon_0%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%7D%7Br%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%7D%7BR_2%7D%20%20%5D%20%3D%208.99%2A10%5E9%20%2A%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2.00%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B0.500%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B1.0%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B1.00%7D%20%5D%20%3D%2044.95%20%2A10%5E3%20V)
Considering h

![V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{R_1} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20%5Cepsilon_0%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%7D%7BR_1%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%7D%7BR_2%7D%20%20%5D%20%3D%208.99%2A10%5E9%20%2A%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2.00%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B0.500%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B1.0%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B1.00%7D%20%5D%20%3D%2044.95%20%2A10%5E3%20V)
Considering i

![V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{R_1} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20%5Cepsilon_0%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%7D%7BR_1%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%7D%7BR_2%7D%20%20%5D%20%3D%208.99%2A10%5E9%20%2A%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2.00%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B0.500%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B1.0%2A10%5E%7B-6%7D%7D%7B1.00%7D%20%5D%20%3D%2044.95%20%2A10%5E3%20V)
Answer:
15.19°, 31.61°, 51.84°
Explanation:
We need to fin the angle for m=1,2,3
We know that the expression for wavelenght is,

Substituting,


Once we have the wavelenght we can find the angle by the equation of the single slit difraction,

Where,
W is the width
m is the integer
the wavelenght
Re-arrange the expression,

For m=1,

For m=2,

For m=3,

<em>The angle of diffraction is directly proportional to the size of the wavelength.</em>